Friend Paul is NOT REFERENCING THE SINAI CODE OF LAW! IS THIS CLEAR?
You’re typing seems to suggest that you’re not even really sure of what you believe.
The argument isn’t whether or not Paul is referencing the Sinai Covenant.
The argument you are attempting to make is that Romans 2:14 negates the New Covenant that Christ established in the Church. And it most certainly does not!
Lets look at the
whole context:
[6] For he will render to every man according to his works:
[7] to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life;
[8] but for those who are factious and do not obey the truth, but obey wickedness, there will be wrath and fury.
[9] There will be tribulation and distress for every human being who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek,
[10] but glory and honor and peace for every one who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek.
[11]** For God shows no partiality.**
[12]
All who have sinned without the law will also perish without the law, and all who have sinned under the law will be judged by the law.
[13] For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified.
[14] When Gentiles who have not the law do by nature what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law.
[15] They show that what the law requires is written on their hearts, while their conscience also bears witness and their conflicting thoughts accuse or perhaps excuse them
[16] on that day when, according to my gospel, God judges the secrets of men by Christ Jesus.
Paul is explaining that all men are equally under the dominion of sin, Jews and Gentiles alike.
In either case Paul is only considering those Jews and Gentiles who lived
before the advent of Christ.
You’re ripping the verse out of context and committing eisegesis, or “reading into” his words what you want to believe.
Your problem is that you cannot read verses of Paul in isolation and insist that that single verse is the completion of Paul’s thought. Far from it. Paul extends his thoughts all the way through to Romans 11.
In Romans 1 & 2 Paul establishes that all are under the dominion of sin.
In Romans 3 reaffirms that “none is righteous” through the law, either the Sinai Covenant OR the natural law of the Gentiles. Instead the only way one can be righteous before God is by faith.
In Romans 4 Paul establishes how faith makes man righteous before God.
In Romans 5 Paul establishes that it is only by grace and through faith in Christ that man can be justified(made righteous).
In Romans 6 Paul explains
how we are made righteous in Christ; through Baptism.
In Romans 7 Paul begins to explain the mystical union between Christ and the baptized is the reality which is symbolized between man and wife in marriage. That it is the indissoluble Covenant bond which makes us one with the New Adam and thus children of God.
In Romans 8 Paul explains that by this Union with Christ we also receive His Spirit within us.
In Romans 9 Paul explains that salvation is not for Jews alone and that God has the perfect right to save whom He wills.
In Romans 10 Paul explains that salvation is for believers in Christ.
In Romans 11 Paul explains that Israel’s rejection is not final, nor are the Gentiles necessarily privileged, but that God has the power to graft in both because of faith, just as He can cut off both because of disbelief.
In another letter Paul also explicitly writes this:
“…You may know how to behave in the household of God, which is the Church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of truth.”(1 Tim 3:15)
The Church is the
Body of Christ, not “bodies”. There is only one
Body, just as the is only, “one Lord, one Faith, one Baptism.”(Eph 4:5; also written by Paul.
I’m sorry, but your sadly mistaken.
Obviously, you are not familiar with Catholic Church teachings about salvation, but prefer your own.