C
Curious_Hobbit
Guest
I took a logic class 2 semesters ago and in the text book the social conservative argument against gay marriage was given as an example of a slippery slope. The argument was something like " The traditional family and marriage will both collapse and be significantly undermined if same-sex marriage becomes legal". The Fallacy was that there is no evidence or proof that an acceptance of same sex marriage will lead to the decay of the traditional family and marriage. So there you have it, a slippery slope.
However, there have been other instances where arguments like “A will lead to B, with no evidence to back the claim” have ended up being correct. I’ve got a few examples in mind.
In the 20th century when the issue of Contraception was being debated, the pope (I can’t remember which) argued that the wide acceptance of birth control would eventually lead to a society accepting abortions. The proponents for contraception at the time argued the opposite, that because we will have birth control there would be no need for abortions. After the Anglican Lambeth Confrence in 1930, The secular Washington Post even argued that the acceptance of contraception would be a deadly blow to the family institution. Then Roe v Wade came in the 70’s and now we see that the pope was right. Not only do we now have a society that is more accepting of abortion, but more than half of the women who have abortions were using birth control at the time of conception and are using abortion as a back up.
In the 70’s, No-Fault divorce became legal and opponents of it argued that it will be very damaging to the family. Opponents maintained that this will eventually lead to couples getting a divorce over silly reasons, some people will get married without putting much thought into their decision, and the kids will suffer as a result. Today we see that they were right. The divorce rate is now between 40-50% of first marriages, and much higher for 2nd and 3rd marriages. People go to Las Vegas and get married by Elvis and divorce 3 months later.
Aren’t these also situations of arguing that A will lead to B without scientific studies or evidence to back them up? Does this mean that not all slippery slopes are fallacious?
However, there have been other instances where arguments like “A will lead to B, with no evidence to back the claim” have ended up being correct. I’ve got a few examples in mind.
In the 20th century when the issue of Contraception was being debated, the pope (I can’t remember which) argued that the wide acceptance of birth control would eventually lead to a society accepting abortions. The proponents for contraception at the time argued the opposite, that because we will have birth control there would be no need for abortions. After the Anglican Lambeth Confrence in 1930, The secular Washington Post even argued that the acceptance of contraception would be a deadly blow to the family institution. Then Roe v Wade came in the 70’s and now we see that the pope was right. Not only do we now have a society that is more accepting of abortion, but more than half of the women who have abortions were using birth control at the time of conception and are using abortion as a back up.
In the 70’s, No-Fault divorce became legal and opponents of it argued that it will be very damaging to the family. Opponents maintained that this will eventually lead to couples getting a divorce over silly reasons, some people will get married without putting much thought into their decision, and the kids will suffer as a result. Today we see that they were right. The divorce rate is now between 40-50% of first marriages, and much higher for 2nd and 3rd marriages. People go to Las Vegas and get married by Elvis and divorce 3 months later.
Aren’t these also situations of arguing that A will lead to B without scientific studies or evidence to back them up? Does this mean that not all slippery slopes are fallacious?