So long as those two humans are male and female.
So long as those two humans are male and female.
True.
True
True, but that doesn’t negate the fact that a male and a female - that is, a heterosexual couple - are required for offspring to be produced.
True, but that doesn’t negate the fact that the heterosexual couple must be fertile for offspring to be produced.If marriage is truly about reproduction, then what class someone belongs to is irrelevant.
Two humans can have children, unless they are homosexual.Two heterosexuals can have children, unless they are sterile.Why can your exception to the rule get married but not mine?
Answer my post#159 before you proclaim anything a farce. If you think the traditional definition is indefensible, propose one that doesn’t fall into a bottomless morass of illogic.
I see no one has ventured a defensible counter definition.Why don’t you take a shot at it, then?
Marriage: a commitment between two loving consensual adults.
Also, your argument does not explain the church’s opposition to civil unions.Care to explain that one?
Can you show a definitive method for proving fertility that doesn’t infringe on 4th amendment protections?
The rule that marriage is a procreative union is supposedly a law of God. Therefore, it usurps all laws of man, including the 4th amendment. If God truly wants marriage to be about procreation, then “finding out is embarrassing” is a pretty weak argument.
Out of all heterosexual couples, only a tiny fraction of a percentage are infertile. Therefore, we give them the benefit of the doubt. Out of all homosexual couples, 100% are infertile. This isn’t rocket surgery.
Out of all human couples, only a small fraction are infertile. Therefore, we should give them the benefit of the doubt.
I think it’s funny that you claim this is God’s law, but that it can be overruled by “giving them the benefit of the doubt”
The Bible is the book of the Church, compiled by the Church, for the good of the Church. If you see a discrepancy between what the Church teaches and what you read into Holy Scripture, then who is the fault with?
The church is misinterpreting verses to condemn homosexuality just like they once misinterpreted verses to say the earth was immovable in space.
Even leaving aside the reasons against it as explained by the Church, even cultures who celebrated and endorsed homosexual activity set marriage aside as something that only happens between a man and a woman.No “will of God” argument there.Can you explain this?
Most of those same cultures, including or own, practiced slavery.
Does that make it ok?
Considering how immoral previous societies were, I find it very bad practice to follow their example.
That reasoning is a farce. Sterile heterosexual have nothing in common with homosexuals.
Sterile couples cannot produce children
Homosexual couples cannot produce children.
Your claim that they have NOTHING In common is pretty blatantly wrong.
Heterosexuals belong to a class that produces children. Homosexuals belong to a class that can never produce children. It is insulting to compare such groups as equal.
Who cares what class they belong to? Since when do we put people in classes? In America, we judge people on individual merit, not what class they belong to.
Upper class people generally do not commit violent crimes. So should we excuse an upper class person who commits a violent crime, just because they belong to a class that generally doesn’t commit them?
Your argument makes no sense.
Of course it makes sense. If marriage is for reproductive purposes, sterile couples should not be allowed to get married. If marriage is not for reproductive purposes, then there is no reason to ban homosexual marriage.
In what way is skin color morally equal to immoral behavior? Just wondering?
Because, if you studied history, you would know that 60 years ago, interracial relationships were considered immoral. The sole difference in the two arguments is time.
How about a federal court judge? In 1959, judge Leon Bazille ruled:
“ Almighty God created the races white, black, yellow, malay and red, and he placed them on separate continents. And but for the interference with his arrangement there would be no cause for such marriages. The fact that he separated the races shows that he did not intend for the races to mix."
60 years ago, many Americans thought interracial marriages were immoral. Today, most do not. It isn’t a far reach to say that in 60 years most Americans probably won’t find homosexual relationships immoral, either.
Uh huh.Those that claim this have more than an academic interest in manipulating the argument.
Really?
The word used by st Paul which is commonly translated to mean “homosexuals” is " arsenokoitēs “, even though the Greek teen for homosexuals was " Androkoitēs”.The word Paul used had never been used before, he made it up.
Why would he make up a word when there was already a word available?Since he made it up, how did the translators knew what he meant?
Our entire biblical justification against homosexuality hinges on a wild guess made by a translator.