C
Contrabass101
Guest
Greetings on this lovely second Sunday of Advent,
I am currently reading Interior Castle by st. Therese of Avila, and encountered a somewhat puzzling statement in the editors foreword.
Does it mean, that there was thought to be two “levels” of sanctity? And is that true Christianity? A teacher of mine told us, that the much of the teaching in the Sermon on the Mount was interpreted by Catholics for a long time to apply only to monks and other “elite Christians”. Is this true?
One thing that draws me to the East is that the Orthodox seem to be less elitistic. The universal call to holiness seems to be more prevalent in the East than the West (historically speaking).
Second, it is my understanding that VA2 changed nothing but merely restated old truths. So either it was not so before VA2 or it is still so after VA2. Which is it?
I hope I have made myself clear…
I am currently reading Interior Castle by st. Therese of Avila, and encountered a somewhat puzzling statement in the editors foreword.
First, I’m not totally sure what it means…She accepted… the two-tiered understanding of holiness prevalent throughout the Catholic world of her day and which held great sway right up to the dawn of the Second Vatican Council. According to this outlook, “the way of the commandments” comprises the basic call pf all baptized Christians (especially laity) and “the way of the counsels” that of a chosen elite (especialle religious and clergy). Only recently has this deeply entrenched outlook begun to change. The documnents of the Second Vatican Council recognize a unique way to God in each vocational state and steer clear of any undue hierarchical comparisons.
Does it mean, that there was thought to be two “levels” of sanctity? And is that true Christianity? A teacher of mine told us, that the much of the teaching in the Sermon on the Mount was interpreted by Catholics for a long time to apply only to monks and other “elite Christians”. Is this true?
One thing that draws me to the East is that the Orthodox seem to be less elitistic. The universal call to holiness seems to be more prevalent in the East than the West (historically speaking).
Second, it is my understanding that VA2 changed nothing but merely restated old truths. So either it was not so before VA2 or it is still so after VA2. Which is it?
I hope I have made myself clear…
- CB