I could not find any of these references in the Bible. Psalms 118 had only 29 versus not 30
According to the Bible
“All have sinned and come short of the glory of God.” Rom 3:23
“There is none righteous, no not one…” Rom 3:10
In Mark she even miss understands Jesus Mark 4 (i think)
1Tim 2:5 “For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men the man Jesus Christ.”
John 14:13-14 pray in the name of Jesus
Matthew 6:7 “But when ye pray, use not vain repitions, as the heathens do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking.”
We all have sin nature passed on via thd blood line of the first Adam. Mary came from the tribe of Judah. Jesus is called Thou Son of David. God himself made this covenant with Abrahan and David. In order for God not to be made a liar Mary had to be in the bloodlune meaning she had the same sin nature we all do. This is also confirmed in Acts 2 where she recieves the Holy Spirit along with all the other Apostles on the day of Pentecost.
Jesus is the Word made flesh. 6 is the number of man 11 the number of revelation the 66 books of the Bible are God’s revelation of himself to us.
To add or take away anything brings a curse Rev 22:19
Find Jesus for yourself read the Bible verse by verse make sure u know who u worship and what u believe.
Jesus says his yoke is easy and his burden light.
Part 1 of 2
For All Have Sinned
A Refutation of the Attack on the Immaculate Conception of Mary from Romans 3:23
(Based on a talk by Karlo Broussard on Catholic Answers Live on 2/11/08)
Many people reject the Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception and argue that Mary was not born sinless and that she did not remain sinless all of her life. In support of their position, they often quote a passage from Paul’s Letter to the Romans which declares, “for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.” (Romans 3:23)
However, does this passage really prove that Mary could not have been without sin? And is this really what Paul intended to teach in this passage? Let’s take a closer look.
The primary question to be asked concerning Romans 3:23 is this: When the Bible uses the word “all”, does it necessarily exclude exceptions? The answer is “no” as several scripture passages suggest.
For example, Matthew 3:5 tells us, “People went out to him from Jerusalem and all Judea and the whole region of the Jordan.” Does this mean that there were no places from which people did not go out to see Jesus? This is not likely. The author attempted to convey an idea that a large number of people went out to see Jesus by using hyperbole.
Similarly, 1 Corinthians 15:22 says, “For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive.” Does this mean that every single person ever born will die? Well, the Bible tells us that Enoch and Elijah were taken up into heaven without dying, so we know that obviously not all die because these two exceptions exist. From this, we know that the Bible does not necessarily exclude exceptions when it uses the word, “all”.
Returning to Romans 3:23, we should ask further whether Paul intended to exclude exceptions when he used the word, “all”, or is he using it in a non-absolute way? To understand the context of Paul’s thought, we should look at Romans 3:10-12 wherein he quotes Psalm 14:2-3: “As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one; there is no one who understands, no one who seeks God. All have turned away; they have together become worthless; there is no one who does good, not even one.”
Does Paul really believe that there no righteous people? Of course not! The Bible tells us that Joseph was a just man (Mt 1:19), John the Baptist’s parents, Zechariah and Elizabeth, were declared righteous (Luke 1:19), and Psalm 14 goes on to speak of “the company of the righteous” in verse 5 while Psalm 15 references those who walk blamelessly and do what is right. So, if Paul is using the word “all” to mean “absolutely no exceptions”, then he is using the word very differently from the verses he quoted from Psalm 14 and from other passages of scripture.
Finally, it is also reasonable for us to assume that Paul would agree that infants and those who are mentally deficient cannot sin personally—two additional exceptions to the concept of “all” having sinned.
Therefore, when Paul uses the word, “all”, it is obvious that he is not attempting to declare that every single individual who ever lives will be guilty of committing personal sin; rather, he is attempting to communicate with clarity the universality of sin and the idea that both Jews and Gentiles alike are sinners before God. He is not attempting to exclude the possibility of exceptions.
Thus, the word “all” in Romans 3:23 cannot be used to disprove the doctrine of sinlessness of Mary.
Furthermore:
"as it is written: “There is no one just, not one, there is no one who understands, there is no one who seeks God.” - Romans 3:10
So, is there no one who ever seeks God? Do you seek God? So, can we assume that “all” literally means “all”?
Also:
The the word “all” in Rom 3:23 in Greek is pantes. It is the same word used in 1 Cor 15:22 where Paul says “all” have died. But we know that Enoch and Elijah did not die; they were assumed into heaven. This means that when Paul says “all” (pantes), he does not mean every single one. In fact, Paul says in Rom 5:19 that “many” were made sinners. This means that when Paul says “all” in regard to sinners, he really means “many.”
Source:
scripturecatholic.com/mary_qa.html#allhavesinned
