Scholar Says: “Don’t Take The Bible Literally”

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steve-b:
You suspected what you read was wrong. How did you know that?
If you mean that I suspect Houghton is wrong, that’s inaccurate. I fear he’s right.
🤔 reason(s)?
 
🤔 reason(s)?
  1. he’s a scholar
  2. the article says this discovery “adds weight to the idea that many early scholars did not see the Bible as a history”
  3. I read elsewhere that Italian bishop Fortunatianus of Aquileia wrote this before our ECFs writing.
 
Fortunatianus of Aquileia
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steve-b:
🤔 reason(s)?
  1. he’s a scholar
  2. the article says this discovery “adds weight to the idea that many early scholars did not see the Bible as a history”
  3. I read elsewhere that Italian bishop Fortunatianus of Aquileia wrote this before our ECFs writing.
As to your last comment: No, he did not predate the ECF’s. http://www.ncregister.com/daily-news/oldest-latin-commentary-on-the-gospels-rediscovered

And

Re: the 2nd comment, There was no bible till after ~382. Because before 382, there was no closed canon.
 
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You seem like you’re looking for reasons to disbelieve. Have you looked through the actual translation of the fourth century text this article is about? Gorgias linked it earlier. I don’t see any concerns about the commentary with Catholicism, and even the article that causes you worry is a sensationalized title, which seems more concerned with fundamentalist “plain reading of scripture” than a Catholic approach.
 
This is just my 2 cents on the OP.

I think it is OK to make a literal interpretation of the Holy Scripture. St. Thomas Aquinas made a distinction between the “literal sense” and the “spiritual senses” of Holy Scripture. The spiritual senses include the allegorical. But according to him the literal sense is more important than the spiritual senses and that, in fact, it is the basis of the spiritual senses.

We must understand what St. Thomas meant by the “literal sense.” The literal sense is not necessarily the meaning of the words, but the meaning that the author meant to convey. For example, when Christ told the Scribes and Pharisees: “You serpents, generation of vipers …” (Matt 23:33), He clearly was not cusring the snakes; He was condemning the Scribes and Pharisees. And that is the literal meaning of Christ’s words, for that is what He wanted to convey. To think that Christ was condemning the snakes is to make a literalist interpretation, not a literal interpretation. In reading the Bible, we are supposed to make a literal, but not a literalist interpretation.
Does this prove the Gospels aren’t factual? Please debunk this.
No. The scholar might just be encouraging us to dig deeper into the spiritual senses, and not limit ourselves to the literal sense of Holy Scripture. I can’t say more than this because I have not read the scholar’s book.

All these are just my opinion.
 
“They are not setting out to be literal accounts but they are set out to be symbolic.”

He said that the Bible had to be “understood in the context that the authors were working in.”
The Catholic Church pretty much agrees with Dr. Hugh Houghton.

Even the Gospel’s have contradictions as pointed out by Pope Benedict XVI.

However, the core truth of Jesus, is still in them.

Jim
 
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steve-b:
As to your last comment: No, he did not predate the ECF’s. http://www.ncregister.com/daily-news/oldest-latin-commentary-on-the-gospels-rediscovered

And

Re: the 2nd comment, There was no bible till after ~382. Because before 382, there was no closed canon.
http://theconversation.com/lost-lat...-500-years-thanks-to-digital-technology-82874

St. Jerome comments on this, it predates the Vulgate and predates Ambrose, Augustine and Jerome.
It’s commentary ~50 yrs earlier than Jerome concerning the gospel .

How does that commentary contradict what I said in the folllowing?
And you show that From your link

"Fortunatianus explains that the sea which is sometimes rough and dangerous stands for the world, while the boat corresponds to the Church in which Jesus is present and carries people to safety.

There are also moments of insight into the lives of fourth-century Italian Christians, as when the bishop uses a walnut as an image of the four Gospels or holds up a Roman coin as a symbol of the Trinity.

## English translation

In the form of a single (no longer anonymous) manuscript, or even a scholarly edition of the Latin text, it will still be some time before this work becomes as widely known as the famous writings of later Christian teachers such as Ambrose, Augustine and Jerome".
 
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steve-b:
How does that commentary contradict what I said in the folllowing?
I’m confused. Where in your link does it indicate this came after the ECFs?
The ECF’s date from the late first century to the eighth century. This document was written probably between the year 340 to 360, rough estimate. We have writings from many Church Fathers prior to that.
 
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The ECF’s date from the late first century to the eighth century. This document was written probably between the year 340 to 360, rough estimate. We have writings from many Church Fathers prior to that.
The article says Ambrose, Augustine and Jerome wrote later.
 
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Wesrock:
The ECF’s date from the late first century to the eighth century. This document was written probably between the year 340 to 360, rough estimate. We have writings from many Church Fathers prior to that.
The article says Ambrose, Augustine and Jerome wrote later.
By a couple decades, yes…

But we have other Church Fathers who predate this document by decades and centuries, too. This document was after the First Council of Nicea.
 
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Clement I
Justin Martyr
Polycarp
Irenaeus of Lyon
Clement of Alexandria
Athanasius
Ignatius of Antioch
Tertullian
Hippolytus
Melito of Sardis

And there were plenty of other ECFs who wrote before this document.
 
Clement I
Justin Martyr
Polycarp
Irenaeus of Lyon
Clement of Alexandria
Athanasius
Ignatius of Antioch
Tertullian
Hippolytus
Melito of Sardis

And there were plenty of other ECFs who wrote before this document.
Ok. Thank you. But is this Houghton right? Are the Gospels untrue?
 
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steve-b:
How does that commentary contradict what I said in the folllowing?
I’m confused. Where in your link does it indicate this came after the ECFs?
I was responding to your point #3 in something you read re: his writing came “before” the ECF’s here
 
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That’s not what Houghton was saying.

And, while I didn’t read every word of the document he’s talking about, didn’t see anything objectionable in what I read. Every read Pope Benedict’s XVI Jesus of Nazareth series?
 
And, while I didn’t read every word of the document he’s talking about, didn’t see anything objectionable in what I read. Every read Pope Benedict’s XVI Jesus of Nazareth series?
I think I may have read one of them.
 
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