T
theidler
Guest
I tried asking this question in the “Ask an apologist” forum for a more official answer, but as with all my questions there, they never get answered for some reason
. So I thought I would ask it here.
Why was Duns Scotus’ defense of the Immaculate Conception accepted over the teachings of other great medieval thinkers who denied it as such (Aquinas, Bonaventure, Bernard, etc.). One would think Aquinas, being the philosopher and theologian of the Church, would have trumped Scotus in terms of authority.
I believe in the Immaculate Conception, don’t get me wrong. But I can’t understand why Scotus was accepted over Aquinas, and what the need was to define the doctrine in the first place.
Why was Duns Scotus’ defense of the Immaculate Conception accepted over the teachings of other great medieval thinkers who denied it as such (Aquinas, Bonaventure, Bernard, etc.). One would think Aquinas, being the philosopher and theologian of the Church, would have trumped Scotus in terms of authority.
I believe in the Immaculate Conception, don’t get me wrong. But I can’t understand why Scotus was accepted over Aquinas, and what the need was to define the doctrine in the first place.