Echaritosen which Paul uses in his letter to the Ephesians is not used just to describe the Ephesians. Paul states the following and I’ll quote:
6 to the praise of his glorious grace, with which he has made us accepted in the Beloved.
His grace in which he graced us - says my translation. i.e. God has graced us including the Ephesians in the Beloved - Christ. My understanding is that with this verse there is no implication that those graced were graced in the past or will remain graced. If we recieve grace and sin, can we expect to remain in grace? The implication of Luke 1:28 is that Mary remained graced from the gracing throughout her entire life.
Justified does not mean to be freed from sin. Being justified simply means that before GOD we as sinners are made right by Christ. Christ does not make us sinless and the church never taught nor does it teach that. Accepting Christ fills us with grace (charis) which makes us holy.
Grace saves us from sin. If we sin we cannot expect to get into heaven.
Rom 6:14:For sin shall not have dominion over you: for you are not under the law, but under grace.
Rom 6:15 What then? Shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid!
In purgatory we are cleansed of our sins so that we are fit to enter into the heavnely kingdom.
Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin is death. But the grace of God, life everlasting in Christ Jesus our Lord.
1 Corinthians 3:14. If any mans work abide, which he built thereupon: he shall receive reward. 15. If any mans work burn, he shall suffer detriment: but himself shall be saved: yet so as by fire.
Incorrect. Kecharitomene literally translates to highly favored. It is the verb form of charis written as a perfect past participle. I explained this already. It has no implication of a fullness and does not mean she was full of favor. You can’t be described as being full of a verb. The verb is an action GOD took. Meaning HE favored Mary. The past participle describes that it was done in the past. Mary doesn’t develop more favor from GOD as time goes on. She was and is favored. Not full of favor.
The Greek literally says highly?
The Greek says favoured?
Ke
charti****omene pleres
charitos (full of grace)
chariti (justified by grace)
The Greek from what I’ve read has verb and noun qualities.
They are not literal word for word translations. They are thought-based translations. And they are incorrect as well. This simply shows they do not understand the Greek. The NASB Bible which is accepted by the Catholic Church uses favored one. Any word for word translation will stay with favored one as this is the strict Greek interpretation.
Tyndale, the so-called ‘father of the English Bible’ doesn’t understand Greek?
Not having read it cover to cover I was under the impression Tyndale’s was literal and the Syriac too.
The Latin is indeed a literal translation.
LAT he did not know her…
NASB he kept her a virgin…
The Church has never approved the NASB. The Amplified Bible by the same company says lit. endued with grace. The heretical Recovery version says you who have been graced. The 1935 Westiminster (lit trans of Greek) says full of grace so does the Catholic edition of the RSV with many changes used in supsequent printings of regular editions.
There is no implication of fullness with the word kecharitomene. If you argue that Mary was full of favor then the same would apply in Paul’s letter to the Ephesians in which he says GOD favored us. But Paul uses present tense language which is why we see the word echaritosen instead of kecharitomene. But the root word charitoo is the same in both cases and is a verb.
Present tense meaning that they are graced with no implication they will remain graced.
Paul doesn’t use a pefect passive participle Luke does
Paul as you noted has chartioo but no Ke and mene
Charis is not the word used here. Charis is a noun. The verb form of charis was used which is charitoo. The noun charis is not used in reference to Mary. Charis is what John uses to describe Christ as being full of using the word Pleres. You are not understanding the Greek here and it is very obvious.
Charitoo - Mary
Chartios - Jesus
No Mary did not lose her grace and neither did we or anyone alive now or in the future on this earth. GOD’s grace applies to us all because Christ came to deliver that grace to us to make us holy before GOD. Christ is full of grace and is the only one in scripture to be described this way.
And Mary is the only one in scripture called Kecharitomene.
Luke could have called her merely favoured or even full of grace in a non permanant sense like St Stephen but instead he uses a word exculusivly for Mary and it becomes God’s very name for her.
In verse 30 the angel tells Mary that GOD has found favor with her. The greek there is Charis. But the angel does not say she is full of charis. The grace GOD found with Mary is the same grace HE finds with you and me. The implication of verse 30 is that Mary was considered holy already which would make sense given she would deliver the Messiah.
The word is charin which else where is translated as grace for e.g. John 1:16
