Scripture and Divorce?

[Crimson_Soldier]

Why is it that our Lord says in the gospel of Luke 16:18 “Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery.” and he does not state any exception however in Matthew 5:31,5:32 He says “Furthermore it has been said, “Whoever divorces his wife let him geive her a certificate of divorce.” But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.”

So does that mean that the only exception to divorce is only if a partner has committed sexual immorality? When if he does not state in the other version of the Gospel?

 

[kepha1]

So does that mean that the only exception to divorce is only if a partner has committed sexual immorality?

No. The immorality that Jesus is talking about has to do with incest or marriages occuring apart from the Temple. “sexual immorality” is the end result of a translation from the word “porneia”, ans is not solely confined to infidelity. Besides, infidelity can be forgiven and healed and is not a valid arguement for divorce.

When if he does not state in the other version of the Gospel?

Matt. 19:6 - Jesus makes it clear that it is God who joins the husband and wife together, according to His will. What God joins together cannot be dissolved because God’s will is perfect and eternal. Matt. 19:9; Mark 10:11-12; Luke 16:18 - Jesus says that whoever divorces and remarries another commits adultery. This is an offense against the natural law.
scripturecatholic.com/divorce_remarriage.html
Divorce is not a sin. Remarrying while the status of your first marraige remains undetermined disqualifies a Catholic from receiving the sacraments.

 

[helleke]

jesus didn’t want any one to divorce.
after marriage ,couples are one.
http://www.photosnag.com/img/4713/n09x0302vnsn/clear.gif

 

[kimberly923200]

Also, if one is divorced and believes that his or her marriage is invalid, he or she can apply for an anulmen in that diocese. If it is granted, then the marriage never existed. If not, then it was a valid marriage and one cannot “marry” again and still receive the Sacraments.

 

[Luke65]

Why is it that our Lord says in the gospel of Luke 16:18 “Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery.” and he does not state any exception however in Matthew 5:31,5:32 He says “Furthermore it has been said, “Whoever divorces his wife let him geive her a certificate of divorce.” But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.”

Excellent observation! Do you know what the difference is between St. Matthew’s gospel and the others’? Matthew’s primary (initial) audience was the Jews, while the other gospels were written later and went straight to a primarily “Gentile” audience. And that’s a good clue why only Matthew recorded that specific exception. It’s about a marriage not being lawful to begin with, either because of an unlawful relationship, i.e., son/father’s wife; or because the wife was found to be “sexually impure”, that is, not a virgin when they were married (notice Jesus did not make the same exception with men - unprovable). This article is the best explanation I’ve seen:

catholic.com/thisrock/2000/0007bt.asp

 

[Cashue]

So does that mean that the only exception to divorce is only if a partner has committed sexual immorality? When if he does not state in the other version of the Gospel?

Are you saying something must be mentioned by all four gospel writers for us to apply it. If john alone mentions a command from the lord can we ignore it.

Jesus only had to be reported as saying something once for it to be accepted as divine direction.

 

[peregrinus_sg]

Are you saying something must be mentioned by all four gospel writers for us to apply it. If john alone mentions a command from the lord can we ignore it.

Jesus only had to be reported as saying something once for it to be accepted as divine direction.

As Catholics, we believe that Jesus continues to teach us today through his Church, specifically through the Magisterium of the Church. Our Pope and Bishops draw on Tradition and Scripture and presents to us the Jesus’ divine teachings and directions for the circumstances of our lives and world today.

I think the question might be better phrased as follows: Jesus’ teachings on marriage and divorce is found in 4 places in the NT. Why was it that only Matthew recorded an exception clause and the rest categorically deny any exception?

 

[Tantum_ergo]

Perhaps because Matthew was historically speaking both to the Jews particularly, and with his own “Romanized” knowledge as a former tax collector. As you know, Moses had permitted divorce and thus there were many people walking around in second, or third marriages. And there were many examples of other types of illicit unions. Matthew I believe was addressing THOSE unions. If people were in an invalid marriage, they would pretty much HAVE TO DIVORCE because otherwise, they were living IN SIN. Thus, Matthew noted that already-sinful marriages (which would be considered legal, though of course not valid) would have to go through the legal machinations of divorce in order to stop the sinful behavior. That is why it is a separate case–it is not the termination of a true, valid marriage, but the stopping of a sinful non-marriage.

 

[Cachonga]

Isa 50:1 read, “Thus saith the Lord: What is this bill of the divorce of your mother, with which I have put her away? or who is my creditor, to whom I sold you: behold you are sold for your iniquities, and for your wicked deeds have I put your mother away.” (DR, emphasis mine), and Jer 3:7-8 says, “And when she had done all these things, I said: Return to me, and she did not return. And her treacherous sister Juda saw, That because the rebellious Israel had played the harlot, I had put her away, and had given her a bill of divorce: yet her treacherous sister Juda was not afraid, but went and played the harlot also herself.” (DR, emphasis mine)

I would say that Matt 5:31-32, in light of these OT scriptures, makes it plain that if you have a spouse that continues to commit fornication (adultery, which is an acceptable meaning for the Greek word “porneia”), even after being forgiven several times, there can come a point when divorce is acceptable to God (or do you think that God was wrong to divorce Israel?).

(BTW - I have been married once, in the Church, and we are still together after more than 20 years, so I’m not making excuses or trying to justify any immoral behavior.)