Oh my! Where to begin? And to what avail… This is perhaps the strangest thing about the referring to Scripture as proof yet mistranslating, misinterpreting and misrepresenting Scripture to say just the opposite…at the same time rejecting the Holy Apostolic Tradition that affirmed that which was Authentic and rejected that which was spurious and the product of false prophets…
Christ did not honor his mother at all while on earth. He never called her ‘Mother,’ instead referring to her as ‘woman.’
Think carefully about all the implications of such a statement, I am certain you did not intend to accuse Jesus of sin, breaking the commandment…“Honor thy father and thy mother.” Nor the Archangel Gabriel of lying, nor of God by whom the he was sent.
You totally ignore Scripture when it explicitly states that Jesus had brothers and sisters and often mentions, James, the Lord’s brother.
Not ignoring, my brother…merely keeping to the faithful Tradition and fullness of Truth.
Where are the Scriptures you keep referring to that show us about Mary? All I see are Old Testament verses that don’t even pertain to Mary at all but instead to a Temple of God.
So, Matthew 1:23 refers to…?
It takes a great deal of faith, and false assumptions, in order to attempt to say that Mary remained a perpetual virgin; was ‘assumed’ into heaven and was sinless.
If we believe Scripture then we can not believe this.
No, if we believe Holy Scripture, we must! Indeed, this is the very meaning of faith, accepting and believing beyond that which can be seen and proven in this earthly existence; attributing it to God, believing in it, expecting and having hope on it.
Christ says “all” have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God.
where is this exact quote to be found?
He didn’t exempt His mother.
You’re right in your assumption, he didn’t need to, she herself did that. God, The Father, Son and Holy Spirit affirmed and proclaimed it in word and in deed.
Even though there is no evidence he even thought of her as a mother.
???..This is not according to the evindence seen, heard and known for 2000 years…
His treatment of her throughout the Bible certainly tells us that He had no special spot for her.
Again, ???. Let’s examine His first miracle performed at the wedding feast in Cana, John 2:4, “Woman what have I to do with thee? mine hour is not yet come.” If it is only seen a rebuke, then how does it follow that He then turned water into wine?
In any event, it is certain that one day, whether in life or in death the Truth and proof of all this and more will be made known to all.
But, do you really think this kind of speculation and commentary “that he had no special spot for her” is pleasing to Christ?
I believe Mary should hold a special place, being the mother of Jesus, contradicting yourself?
but she is not the mother of God. Jesus was already God when Mary bore him. He did not have a mother. He always existed and will always exist.
Correct in that before His birth according to the flesh, He was begotten of The Father, with no mother. But, that only refers to the Divine Nature of Christ, The Word and Only-begotten Son of God. But that’s not the whole “picture”. Christ was also perfectly man, yes Divine in His Godhead -begotten of The Father; but also, in His loving-kindness and for our salvation became man, was born as a man of the Virgin Mary. But still One Christ, the child Jesus was born of the Virgin Mary, the person of Christ who both Divine and Human…
Still One Christ, Divine and human at the same time, one person, one Christ.
Not one without the other, The Word was made flesh, born of the Virgin …without father in His humanity, without mother in His Divinity… are you beginning to see?
Although it may be difficult for mere man to comprehend the Mystery, when distinction is made to deny either Divinity or Humanity, it falls short of the mark.
