The notion that Paul would not be referring to one of the James among the original twelve is absurd.
Why? B/c it doesn’t fit with your agenda?
The authority of these twelve was greater than other followers for a reason.
Their authority doesn’t seem to have been greater than Paul’s…yet he wasn’t one of the 12. James is mentioned as a brother of Jesus in Matt 13:35 and Mk 6:3 in a context that must mean “of the same parent(s)”. Then, when Paul mentions James, the brother of our Lord, he would be referring to that well known sibling of Jesus. It is absurd to suggest that Paul meant one of the two Jameses of the 12 (since an actual brother named James was known) .
They were with Jesus and learned directly from him and were commissioned directly by Him. Paul was also commissioned directly by Jesus.
…and James would have been related to him by blood…an extremely significant connection (unless you want to dismiss Mary’s connection as well).
If in trying to establish his authority as equal to the apostles it makes no sense at all that he would try to prove that he should be given the credence of some nondescript group of followers.
Nondescript? The apostle in question is named. His blood relationship to the Lord is given. That is anything but nondescript. He would have been respected b/c of that relationship.
Clearly he was saying he should be recognized as having the same authority to teach, as the twelve.
He was saying that he should have the same authority as the “reputed pillars” named Peter, John and James the brother of Christ. If Paul could attain that status starting from outside the 12, then James the actual brother of Jesus could also rise to that status (if he was called to the office of apostle…and clearly he was so called).
What Christ does do in scripture is give authority to the twelve apostles to teach in His name. He gathered those men to Himself and taught them in particular…The Bible does not guarantee their teaching. Jesus does.
I agree that the apostles did not err in their teaching…the error of the RP developed later (IMHO).
Thomas went off to India and established a Church that was separated by distance and time for generations and their doctrines are the same as the rest of the Church.
How was it separated when trade routes connected India to the Middle-East and to Europe? Trade and missionary efforts ensured a continued connection.
For a millenium and a half their teaching, doctrine, belief on the Eucharist was universally held. It is a matter of history not theology or scriptural interpretation.
Your history is faulty. It would seem that a RP view began to dominate some time around 300 AD, but even then there were exceptions. J T O’Connor, author of “The Hidden Manna”, a RC and a fellow that believes that Augustine held to a real presence acknowledges that van der Meer, the author of a renowned work on Augustine, concluded that with respect to Augustine:
“It is perfectly true, however, that there is nowhere any indication of any awareness of the Real Presence of Christ in the Sacrament, or that he thought very much about this subject or made it the object of devotion; that was alien to the people of that age – at any rate in the West.” It just wasn’t universal in the first centuries…and probably wasn’t ever universal, given that even now (when doubters can easily leave to another Church) just more than half of US RCs believe in a RP.
He also says in scripture that He would send the Holy Spirit to lead them into all truth and He would be with them until the end of time.
that much you got right
He made promises, guarantees, that the things believed by His Church would be true until the end of time.
These exact words seem to be missing from scripture
That means the things the Church believed in the year 100, 200, 500, 1000, 1500, 2000 are true.
well at least the core beliefs (as described by Tertullian and Irenaeus) were true
So if someone comes along in the year 1500 and teaches something that is novel and that contradicts the consistent beliefs of His Church based on a personal interpretation of scripture that novel doctrine must be false, or Christ’s promises and scripture itself are false.
Same for the novelty of the RP introduced quite a bit earlier than 1500.
Jesus founded His Church. He gave authority to men as recorded in scripture. He did not found His Church on scripture. He did not tell us that we would receive our faith from scriptue, but scripture tells us we would receive it from those He sent, apostles.
yep…and what we have left from the apostles today is the Scriptures…error has crept into RC tradition
Not so. The great majority of Christians in the world are Catholic (over a billion) and Orthodox (about 400 million). They believe in the original doctrines.
Most believe what they are told that they must believe…but not nearly all. More than 40% of US RCs believe the bread is merely a symbol. The % for Orthodox and Lutherans would likely be higher. At that rate, most Christians do not believe in a RP.
The idea that the elements of the Eucharist are merely symbolic are new notions not held by the first Protestant reformers.
Please note that one can believe that the elements of the Eucharist are symbols and still believe that the Lord’s Supper achieves a sacramental benefit. Tertullian, Origen Clement of Alexandria would seem to fall into that group…and so your claim of a new notion ain’t that accurate. Further, if only about 57% of US RCs believe in a RP despite the hierarchy’s command to do so, what percentage has believed in the RP throughout history?