Are we agreed that Jesus took His information about Jonah from the book of the Old Testament bearing Jonah’s name?
It is possible to assume so, but then one must also decide whether the words attributed to Jesus in this one gospel were actually something he may have said. There is no corroborating evidence that he said this and based on the
Instruction on the historical Truth of the Gospels, that is certainly not a given thing. Maybe these words were attributed to Jesus as part of the author’s teachings.
I hope that we can agree that Jonah’s preaching to the Ninevites and their subsequent repentance are historical as indicated by our Lord: “The men of Nineveh will rise up at the judgment with this generation and condemn it, for they repented at the preaching of Jonah, and behold, something greater than Jonah is here” (Matt. 12:41).
There is no paticular reason to treat this as historical. Jesus is just using a reference to a well known story as part of his teaching and there is certainly no reason whatsoever the reference has to be historical. I can tell my child that if he doesn’t build something strong enough, it will fall down in the wind just like the houses of the first 2 little pigs - that doesn’t mean I think the Three Little Pigs is historical.
These people who repented cannot rise up at the judgment if they are only characters in a novel.
If it is story used to illustrate a point, it doesn’t matter. I refer you to my previous post about this story.
Here is the problem, as I see it, for those who do not believe in the episode with the fish. Jesus indisputably treats this preaching of Jonah as a historical reality.
I don’t see that at all.
In the very same breath, however, He says that “just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” (Matt. 12:40). Jesus gives no indication that, while the one reference He makes is to a historical event, the other is to a work of imagination. His manner of speaking without a shift in language and His placing of the two events in immediate juxtaposition most straightforwardly suggest and reasonably necessitate that both events are understood by Him as historically based.
And why could he not have been referencing a well-known story as part of his teaching? Again, I see no requirement whatsoever that it be historical or that it is abnormal to reference a fictional and non-fictional event as part of the same teaching. Please see my previous post about the story.
Another example. Are the stories of the Old Testament understood as historically true? I am not aware of any example that can be given to suggest that the narratives are not historically true.
What? Even the church does not require an historical belief in the creation accounts or the couple in the garden, or Noah, or… If the historicity of ANY of these stories was significant, the church would mention it. Not to mention all the historians who would be sure to mention the stories in their textbooks.
And in fact, the church clearly states in the Dogmatic document
Dei Verbum that scripture isn’t always historically based:
To search out the intention of the sacred writers, attention should be given, among other things, to “literary forms.” For truth is set forth and expressed differently in texts which are variously historical, prophetic, poetic, or of other forms of discourse. The interpreter must investigate what meaning the sacred writer intended to express and actually expressed in particular circumstances by using contemporary literary forms in accordance with the situation of his own time and culture.
I followed this guidance exactly in the post I made regarding the nature of the Jonah story.
But we do have an example that can be used as a hermeneutical key to suggest that the narratives are historically true: “Now these things happened to them as an example, but they were written down for our instruction” (1 Cor. 10:11). We can see that there is no way to understand this as referring to anything but historical events that were captured in writing for future generations.
Paul refers in very broad generalties to nonspecific events as a means of warning his readers to behave. To take this as a testament to any particular story’s historicity is really going overboard, I think.
What “things”? He doesn’t mention any specific story.
And they were subsequently written down. One does not speak of fictional accounts in this way. What historical events do we have in this context? It sounds like the pillar of cloud by day and fire by night, the passing through the Red Sea, the manna, the water from the rock, and the twenty-four thousand who died in the plague on account of their sexual immorality. Paul also seems to be familiar with the fact that twenty-three thousand of the twenty-four thousand who died, did so in a single day; again, this suggests a certain level of historical precision. In recounting many of these events, Paul at the same time draws out their embedded spiritual significance, what was happening at a deeper level. And yet, the historicity of these events serves as the bedrock for his interpretation: “these things happened.”
I would say that these things were
reported to have happened. Paul has no more knowledge of the historical facts of any of these events than we do and he is not teaching history, he is teaching people that they had better behave.