J
JoyToBeCatholic
Guest
In my thread about "What if it’s against my conscience…) people have been trying to make me see that the Bible wouldn’t be canon in the first place had it not been for the church, therefore, I should submit to the church. (that’s the short version
). Anyway,I said that Jesus said the Holy Spirit would bring all things to their (Apostles) remembrance. If the Scriptures are inspired by God, and if the Apostles had all things in their remembrance, and if the H.S. guided them to write these things, I cannot possibly believe that He only had them write some of their teachings.
I started to think that this is circular reasoning but wasn’t sure if I was right. I was right. It is circular reasoning, b/c I’m using a NT passage to validate the authenticity of the NT (hope I said that right).
So, I’ve been thinking about it. Ultimately, what is it that has brought me to where I am in my faith. And I figured it out (or at least, I think I did), and I think you will see where I’m coming from if I lay it all out for you:
Ok, I’m just an agnostic looking for the one true God and the way to everlasting peace. I use reasoning not unlike that which you’ll find here: www.whyjesus.com . I look at the impact of Christianity on the world and the fact that Jesus is historical (even according to non-Christians!) and I become persuaded that the answer most likely lies in the claims of Christianity. So I look at ALL of the early writings of that period. I start first with the o.t., since Jesus obviously believed in it, and go on from there to everything that exists, canon or not. Firstly, I will find in the o.t. claims that Gods word will endure forever (among many other incredible claims about Gods word
). Then I will look at every Bible in publish today and find that these claims are in every single one of them. I will also see MOST of the same books in every single one of them. I think, at that point, I can rest assured that God indeed has lived up to His promise.
Does it really matter *how *God’s Word was preserved??? God has kept all of His promises, and I gasp sometimes at the means through which He has done so. One only needs to look at the o.t. to see some pretty shocking events that God ordained to bring about His will. So what if He used a theologically imperfect church to begin attempting the preservation of His Word?( I really don’t mean that as a derogatory comment), but what I’m saying is:
Does it HAVE TO MEAN that God used an infallible church to do it???
Btw, I really want to try to keep this thread on-topic. I feel obligated to answer every post as best I can, but if it gets off-topic I may have to bypass something for the sake of saving time. (i’m seeing evidence that i’m taking way too much time here lately)
Thanks
I started to think that this is circular reasoning but wasn’t sure if I was right. I was right. It is circular reasoning, b/c I’m using a NT passage to validate the authenticity of the NT (hope I said that right).
So, I’ve been thinking about it. Ultimately, what is it that has brought me to where I am in my faith. And I figured it out (or at least, I think I did), and I think you will see where I’m coming from if I lay it all out for you:
Ok, I’m just an agnostic looking for the one true God and the way to everlasting peace. I use reasoning not unlike that which you’ll find here: www.whyjesus.com . I look at the impact of Christianity on the world and the fact that Jesus is historical (even according to non-Christians!) and I become persuaded that the answer most likely lies in the claims of Christianity. So I look at ALL of the early writings of that period. I start first with the o.t., since Jesus obviously believed in it, and go on from there to everything that exists, canon or not. Firstly, I will find in the o.t. claims that Gods word will endure forever (among many other incredible claims about Gods word
Does it really matter *how *God’s Word was preserved??? God has kept all of His promises, and I gasp sometimes at the means through which He has done so. One only needs to look at the o.t. to see some pretty shocking events that God ordained to bring about His will. So what if He used a theologically imperfect church to begin attempting the preservation of His Word?( I really don’t mean that as a derogatory comment), but what I’m saying is:
Does it HAVE TO MEAN that God used an infallible church to do it???
Btw, I really want to try to keep this thread on-topic. I feel obligated to answer every post as best I can, but if it gets off-topic I may have to bypass something for the sake of saving time. (i’m seeing evidence that i’m taking way too much time here lately)
Thanks