D
dcrowmik
Guest
I have from time to time come across those who claim Sola Scriptura - we should do ONLY what the Bible tells us and nothing more. Arguments on each side end up being circular as one side will claim the definition and concept of sola scriptura is in the Bible and the other side says no.
In this article you will find that the original Protestant King James versions of the Bible included all the apocrypha which our Catholic Bibles contain, but then over time they disappeared.
Quote:
In 1615, George Abbott, the Archbishop of Canterbury, went so far as to employ the power of law to censure any publisher who did not produce the Bible in its entirety (i.e. including the “Apocrypha”) as prescribed by the Thirty-nine Articles.
Quote:
“[W]hatever may be our personal opinions of the Apocrypha, it is a historical fact that they formed an integral part of the King James Version, and any Bible claiming to represent that version should either include the Apocrypha, or state that it is omitting them. Otherwise a false impression is created.” [Story of the Apocrypha (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1939, p. 7]
A key chapter in the above quoted book is chapter 18.
So I guess the question becomes this: if, as some say, sola scriptura is a FACT, and if the Bible had those books ever since the Bible was compiled, and since those books eventually became a secret to Protestants who changed the Bible and removed them, how can anyone claim sola scriptura and claim sola scriptura as a fact when they themselves are the ones responsible for taking away from the Bible?
Please enlighten me if I am missing something. Thanks.
In this article you will find that the original Protestant King James versions of the Bible included all the apocrypha which our Catholic Bibles contain, but then over time they disappeared.
Quote:
In 1615, George Abbott, the Archbishop of Canterbury, went so far as to employ the power of law to censure any publisher who did not produce the Bible in its entirety (i.e. including the “Apocrypha”) as prescribed by the Thirty-nine Articles.
Quote:
“[W]hatever may be our personal opinions of the Apocrypha, it is a historical fact that they formed an integral part of the King James Version, and any Bible claiming to represent that version should either include the Apocrypha, or state that it is omitting them. Otherwise a false impression is created.” [Story of the Apocrypha (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1939, p. 7]
A key chapter in the above quoted book is chapter 18.
So I guess the question becomes this: if, as some say, sola scriptura is a FACT, and if the Bible had those books ever since the Bible was compiled, and since those books eventually became a secret to Protestants who changed the Bible and removed them, how can anyone claim sola scriptura and claim sola scriptura as a fact when they themselves are the ones responsible for taking away from the Bible?
Please enlighten me if I am missing something. Thanks.