From what I’ve read about him, my beliefs are very close to those of Father George Lemaître, the Catholic priest who first proposed the Big Bang Theory. He believed in the hidden God Almighty described for instance by Isaiah, rather than the interventionist god which many these days seem to believe in.
If you’re interested, there’s a good introduction to Lemaître at
catholicculture.org/culture/library/view.cfm?recnum=8847.
Thank you for that. I also believe in the Big Bang Theory, but whether it be big bang theory or what ever, it was still designed, you don’t get something from nothing, no designer is an athiest point of view. No designer means no creator.
Religious people know that something can’t come from nothing, thus we have a creator, who is also our designer, you don’t think the dictionary was done by an explosion in a printing press do you?
Thus I come to the same point, men and women didn’t just happen, no more than the dictionary just happened from an explosion in a printing press, we were designed.
And basically if you believe in God, than you believe in a designer, so my question is, how do you reject a designer? and if there is no designer than how do you get the creation?
Not even Reverend Monsignor Georges Lemaître would reject God as the designer and creator, he is merely trying to explain how God may have created the universe, how God’s design may have worked and came into being.
So thus, you believe in God, and God is our creator therefore how could he not have designed us? do you think men and women were a mistake? that he created the big bang and said “lets see where it all goes.” How can you not think it was designed? that humankind especially male and female have been designed?
Fornication means sex outside marriage, therefore by definition sex within marriage is not fornication. Therefore it’s kind of like double jeopardy to prevent people from getting married and then criticize them for fornication.
My argument of fornication and same sex marriage was separate. But yes, if homosexuals do not desire the appropriate sexual act, we do not pretend that an inappropriate sexual act is suddenly appropriate.
If desires are your conclusion as to why such sexual acts are considered moral and not sinful, than what about a heterosexual who no longer desires his wife?
I am just trying to point out that given your logic for seeing nothing wrong with the sexual acts of homosexuality, you must also see nothing wrong with fornication, really using the same logic you must see nothing wrong with all protected sexual activity, otherwise the logic for advocating the sexual acts of homosexuality makes no sense.
Same sex marriage is a move from the father of all lies, the logic you are using can so easily be used against you to remove any sense of sexual morality, because if the sexual acts of homosexuality are seen as moral, than what sexual activities are considered immoral?
So I would be very interested if you could come up with a logical conclusion for why you see the sexual acts of homosexuality as moral and other sexual acts as immoral, such as fornication, polygamy, incest etc etc.
If we continue using the standard definition of fornication (“voluntary sexual intercourse between persons not married to each other”) then I’d say it’s highly immoral if for example either of them is married to someone else, but if both of them are single, consenting adults in their right mind then it’s up to them unless harm may come to someone else (incest is such an example since there’s a high risk of a deformed offspirng).
Yes, we are using the standard definition, if they are married than it’s not fornication it’s adultery.
So your reasoning says that fonication is “up to them” unless harm may come to someone else, I might also include that with contraception and all of the birth control methods available today, incestuous sexual relations would remove the consideration of children.
I would also include that sexual relations with more than one person such as polygamy would be included in fornication, such as a threesome etc
If these sexual acts are “up to you” would you say that they are immoral? and if not, how did you conclude it?
I don’t think this is true though. Society is perfectly willing to marry heterosexuals without asking them any questions at all about sex, so why should society have a completely different attitude when it comes to homosexual couples?
Exactly, so why would society be unwilling to marry incestuous couples or polygamists? because your right, no questions are asked about sex, so why would sex be a factor in these other marriages?
Do you see why the Pope said that same sex marriage is a move from the father of all lies, to decieve people of good will? because you are indirectly advocating a vast range of sexual immorality with the reasoning behind same sex marriage without realising.
How could people advocate the sexual acts of homosexuality yet discourage any other sexual act?
I assume this is true of the Catholic sacrament of marriage, but it’s not true for civil marriage, and there are a lot of married people who use birth control to prevent sex being reproductive.
Yes, there are alot of people using birth control, in which the Catholic Church says is immoral because it closes the sexual act to the gift of life. However it is still the reproductive sexual act that is being advocated with heterosexual marriage.
You say it is not true for civil marriage, than what is true for civil marriage? anything goes approach? why are incestuous relationships and polygamists unable to marry in civil marriage?
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