P
Peter_Plato
Guest
Kant distinguished between hypothetical imperatives which are conditional upon the end desired and categorical imperatives which are logically inconsistent with rational well-being.Sure, and of course exactly the same thing applies to the argument Acrossthedesert gave as well.
Hypothetical imperatives only apply to someone willing a particular end:
if I wish to satisfy hunger, I should eat something;
if I wish to have knowledge on a certain subject, I should take the time to learn about it.
These are like your prospective teacher deliberating about becoming a professional teacher. It would not be immoral of her/him to decide either way because neither would be imperative in a categorical sense. Neither willing everyone to become teachers nor willing no one to do so would be conducive to the well-being of any or all rational human beings, so there is nothing categorically or morally imperative in the issue of choosing to become a teacher as a general principle.
That does not preclude that for some (pedophiles, alcoholics, etc.) there might be particular circumstances that would make it immoral for these individuals to consider doing so.
A categorical imperative, on the other hand, according to Kant concerns an absolute or unconditional requirement that must apply in all circumstances precisely because it is inconsistent with rational considerations of well-being. Categorical imperatives are both required and justified as logically necessary to bring about what no one would deny is for the well-being of any or all human beings.
Kant’s first formulation goes like this:
Act only according to that maxim whereby you can, at the same time, will that it should become a universal law.
What he means are morally obligatory principles, i.e., those which are binding on all moral creatures, are those that you can consistently will to become universal law.
He attempted to distinguish between morally binding principles and those which are merely pragmatic or practical towards certain ends. Only those which can be willed universally are those which are morally binding and obligatory.
Clearly, becoming a teacher (in the narrow sense of profession) is not a moral principle. Attempting to make it a moral principle runs into precisely the problem you pointed out. You cannot consistently and reasonably will that everyone become a teacher, so it does not function as a categorical imperative.
You claimed there was a problem with Kant’s universalizability criterion, but that is not what your example demonstrates. It only demonstrates (though questionably) that becoming a teacher does not fit Kant’s categorical criteria to determine whether becoming a teacher is obligatory for anyone.
As to Acrossthedesert’s claim:
He is claiming that a moral choice to “become gay” cannot be morally sanctioned because such a choice would lead to the end of the human race.I have wrote several responses to your thread, but it just dawned on me what you were actually asking.
Does the Truth exist without God? Can we truly have a secular argument that is valid?
**At the individual level, I would say no. **
In general (anthropologically speaking) you could use Kant’s categorical imperative.
Categorical Imperative:
If you want to test if an action is moral, try adopting the action as a universal rule. If the universal rule does not undermine itself than most likely the action is moral.
For example, say stealing was universally adopted. If everyone steals than nobody would even think of a right to ownership, and therefore the action (stealing) would not truly exist. Stealing depends on most people believing in ownership and a few stealing what the others have accumulated (owned).
Say that gay marriage was universally adopted. If everyone had a gay marriage then no children would be had and the human race would cease to exist. The universality of gay marriage undermines the idea of gay marriage and therefore, gay marriage is not moral.
There is a bigger problem with your analogy, however, because it is quite consistent to will that everyone be a “teacher” in the fuller sense of the word. If everyone went out of their way to share their valued skills, knowledge and talents with others, that indeed would be conducive to the well-being of all. Even doctors can and must learn from others in order to become competent, so passing on the skills of knowledge of any profession might indeed be a moral imperative.
Your analogy actually fails to mitigate Acrossthedesert’s argument, but instead supports it. A case can be made for teaching others to be an imperative based upon doing so being conducive of the good of all, though not in the narrow sense that you attempted to argue.