D
Digitonomy
Guest
At mass today we sang “Seek the Lord” by Roc O’Connor, which I enjoyed, especially in comparison to the other songs which were a bit insipid and high-pitched. However, I noticed there were two options for the refrain, one with an asterisk stating “Composer’s Revised Text,” the other with two asterisks stating “Original Text.”
The lyrics are from Isaiah 55: 6-9 and verse 6 closely matches the original text, which is “Seek the Lord, where he may be found; call to him, while he is still near.”
The revised text removes the sense of urgency from the lyrics, or put another way, removes the implication that the Lord may be leaving. I don’t recall the specific words, but the last phrase is along the lines of “who is near” rather than “while he is near.”
So, a few questions:
The lyrics are from Isaiah 55: 6-9 and verse 6 closely matches the original text, which is “Seek the Lord, where he may be found; call to him, while he is still near.”
The revised text removes the sense of urgency from the lyrics, or put another way, removes the implication that the Lord may be leaving. I don’t recall the specific words, but the last phrase is along the lines of “who is near” rather than “while he is near.”
So, a few questions:
*]Why were the lyrics changed - is it likely that O’Connor thought the refrain misguided in suggesting the Lord possibly leaving, or is there a better explanation I’m overlooking?
]I’ve read various citations of say Musicam Sacram, etc. What is the rule on song lyrics - must they match their scriptural source (if they have one), or only if part of say the psalm? And must it match exactly, or is there room for minor finagling to allow the verse phrasing to match the music (“Call to him while he is still near”, rather than “Call him while he is near”?]If the lyrics are required at times to match exactly the source scripture, must it match in the locally approved translation (NAB for US and Philippines, NRSV for Canada, Jerusalem Bible for most of the rest of the anglophone world)?