F
fakename
Guest
Would it be a sin for a starving man to use deadly force against a rich man to get the latter’s food?
I don’t think it would since “anyone can kill someone (if they have to) in order to protect their property”
But food and necessities for survival are the property of all men (indeed anything needed to have a slightly less than subsistence life-style is a person’s property from what I’ve read), such that it is considered theft not to donate to poor people. So there is no sin done in the above scenario.
Seems like a dangerous conclusion though, so I ask, is it true?
(this is sort of a continuance of the self-defense thread)
I don’t think it would since “anyone can kill someone (if they have to) in order to protect their property”
But food and necessities for survival are the property of all men (indeed anything needed to have a slightly less than subsistence life-style is a person’s property from what I’ve read), such that it is considered theft not to donate to poor people. So there is no sin done in the above scenario.
Seems like a dangerous conclusion though, so I ask, is it true?
(this is sort of a continuance of the self-defense thread)