L
La-Petite-Fleur
Guest
I usually stay away from questions like these, so I apologize to begin with.
Within marriage, is it a mortal sin to engage in foreplay, without orgasm of either partner, and without intercourse if one partner is not fully capable of having intercourse at that time because of a pre-existing illness? In other words, if one spouse has a condition where they shouldn’t have intercourse for medical reasons, is it a mortal sin for them to engage in foreplay without orgasm? Weird question, I know, but I would appreciate an answer. Thanks.
Within marriage, is it a mortal sin to engage in foreplay, without orgasm of either partner, and without intercourse if one partner is not fully capable of having intercourse at that time because of a pre-existing illness? In other words, if one spouse has a condition where they shouldn’t have intercourse for medical reasons, is it a mortal sin for them to engage in foreplay without orgasm? Weird question, I know, but I would appreciate an answer. Thanks.