I find some interesting information in the book of Acts which poses a bit of a suspicion in my mind. I will try to put this in succinct argumentation so that it is easy to understand.
Jesus tells his disciples that “John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now” (Acts 1:6-8). The present question is the following, is Christ making a distinguishing the baptism of water (John’s baptism) and the baptism of the Holy Spirit in such a way that he implies that “water” cannot do what the Holy Spirit can do? Is he distinguishing water baptism from Spirit baptism altogether, as if they are two different things which can occur at different times? (this would be implied by the fact that the apostles were baptized in the Holy Spirit without water). Or he Jesus simply distinguishing John’s baptism as a redemptive-historical mode of baptism with the redemptive-historical mode of the Spirit baptism?
We know that the apostles were baptized with the Holy Spirit without the application of water in the upper room, and Peter even recounts this event of being baptized in the Holy Spirit (without water) when Cornelius is baptized. Jesus did not really say exactly how many days the apostles would have to wait before the promise of the Father, and so I can understand that God did not expect them to be waiting in water for 40 days for the Spirit to fall when there is water to be applied. This is understandable. But we cannot escape the fact that the apostles did get baptized with the Holy Spirit without the application of water. Observation kept.
If Jesus did contrast John’s water baptism and the Pentecostal Spirit baptism as a way to show the superfluity of being baptized in water versus the real effective-unto-salvation Spirit baptism without water, the apostles surely did not stop baptizing people in water. Why would they, then, continue to baptize in water if they had learned from Christ that such an event was not potent for salvation since it is the Spirit baptism, in contrast to John’s baptism, that actually brings about this entry into the Holy Spirit and the Trinitarian life. If it is true that Jesus meant that water baptism accomplishes no salvific grace, and yet the apostles continued to baptize with water, then the theology of mere symbolism in Protestant Baptist Circles is almost entirely justified.
If Christ was contrasting John’s baptism and The Spirit’s baptism as way to distinguish redemptive-historical shifts in salvation history, and yet the apostles continued to baptize with water, well then we can see the necessity for both baptism in water and Spirit. It seems that the apostles understood that baptism in water in the name of Jesus Christ as the normal means of receiving the Holy Spirit, for Peter, who himself was baptized in the Holy Spirit without water, still tells Israel “Repent, and let everyone of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit” (Acts 2:38). We cannot be too sure that Peter meant a rigid and inflexible rule, such as one must repent first, then be baptized in water for the remission of sin, and then and only then will one receive the Holy Spirit. Unless I’m mistaken, it does not seem Peter is suggesting such an inflexible rule.
The samaritans were baptized but had not yet received the Holy Spirit. This means that, in some sense, one can be fully baptized in water and yet not have the Holy Spirit. And this fact pushes someone to believe that either water baptism accomplishes something which is completely other than the baptism of the Spirit, maybe even nothing, or that baptism in water accomplishes something that has a relationship to the Spirit but is not the full application which comes with the baptism of the Holy Spirit. Some sort of differentiation has to be made, since the samaritans were successfully baptized and yet were not baptized in the Holy Spirit. This question remains on the text of Scripture.
Cornelius received the baptism of the Holy Spirit before his baptism in water, and this also pushes one to question what exactly was Cornelius missing that he needed to be baptized in water? If indeed the baptism of the Spirit is the deciding factor over whether Gentiles can be saved (Avts 15), then it would seem as though Cornelius’ baptism in water really did not accomplish anything, but was a mere initiation symbol expressing one’s discipleship, as the Anabaptists argued. Simply put, what grace, if any at all, was applied to Cornelius in his water baptism, given the fact he was already completely baptized with the Holy Spirit?