G
Gorgias
Guest
OK. Fair example! However, (again with all due respect), I think you’re confusing the doctrine of indulgences with the discipline associated with them! Have you ever read Paul VI’s Indulgentiarum Doctrina? In it, he discusses both the doctrine and the discipline. Now, relative to our discussion, it would be important to discuss the disctinction between the two. Your problem, it seems, is with the discipline (“we must do A, B, C in a specified manner in order to obtain X”) rather than with the doctrine. The doctrine, as outlined in the Apostolic Constitution on Indulgences, can be summarized as follows: sins bring punishments (ID #2), these punishments are imposed for the purification of souls (Ibid., 2), and Christians everywhere help each other with “prayer, the exchange of spiritual goods and penitential expiation” (Ibid., 3). The application of the merits of Christ and of the saints can set individuals free from the vestiges of (already-forgiven) sins (Ibid., 7). This isn’t the exclusive or even primary way of doing this – the sacraments, especially Mass and Penance have this primacy (Ibid., 11).The Doctrine of indulgences (and yes, it is a doctrine). And yes, I know what an indulgence (plenary or partial) IS and I understand its point of origin (early Church for those awaiting execution or imprisonment for being Christian).
This is the doctrine. Are you saying that you think this is in error?
If not, then it’s appropriate to look at the discipline associated with indulgences. (Remember, of course, that discipline doesn’t rise to the level of infallibility – in fact, in ID, Paul VI admits that “the practice of indulgences has at times been improperly used either through ‘untimely or superfluous indulgences’ … or through the ‘illicit profits’. … But the Church, in deploring and correcting these improper uses 'teaches … that the use of indulgences … is supremely salutary for the Christian people and authoritatively approved by the sacred councils.” (Ibid., 8)). So, there’s a definite distinction between doctrine (which infallibly defined, stands through time) and discipline (which doesn’t rise to the level of infallibility).
Discipline can validly change, to meet the situations of time and place; Paul IV notes that the norms of ID “introduce appropriate variations in the discipline of indulgences”. Among them are “new measurements for partial indulgences” and the reduction of “the number of plenary indulgences.”
So… what is it? Do you take issue with the doctrine, or with the discipline? Given your statement about the “A, B, C” of indulgences, it seems that you’re talking only about discipline. That’s ok, of course – they’re not infallible, but they are an exercise of the authority of the Church. You’re not wrong for discussing their merits; but you are mistaken, it seems, in attributing your doubts to doctrine.
Doctrine is truth; discipline is rule. Rule proceeds from authority; doctrine proceeds from Christ. Are you saying that the Church doesn’t have the authority to proclaim discipline? If so, that’s an interesting discussion – but a completely different point from the one you’ve been making here.This is not an “infallible” teaching yet it is certainly represented as an absolute truth. I have never heard any priest or nun say that it’s church “opinion” or church “guess” - I have heard it and seen it taught as actual truth, absolute and guaranteed. By what authority?
Absolutely. And I don’t want to make it seem that I’m maligning your love of the Lord or your willingness to serve Him – even in serving Him through the Church. However, I believe that you’re mistaken in this issue, conflating the notions of ‘doctrine’ and ‘discipline’ and complaining about the latter but calling it by the name of the former…This doesn’t intend to imply that I do not love the Lord, that I do not serve Him