Servile work obligation on All Saints Day Nov 1

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Since All Saints Day Nov 1 is on Monday the obligation to attend Mass is abrogated. I am wondering if the obligation to refrain from “servile” work is also abrogated.

The Canon Law Society of America makes this comment on canon 1246: “For those feasts not retained as holy days of obligation, the episcopal conference has two options: either to transfer the feast to a Sunday or to retain the feast on its proper day BUT to abolish the obligation to participate in the Eucharist AND abstain from servile work.”

But their next paragraph is a bit confusing: “In the United States, Epiphany and the Body and Blood of Christ are transferred to Sundays; Saint Joseph and Saints Peter and Paul are celebrated on their proper days, but the obligations are suppressed. Whenever January 1, August 15, or November 1 fall on a Saturday or a Monday, the obligation to attend Mass is suppressed.”

Why do they mention “obligation to attend Mass” for Nov 1 but mention “obligation(s)” (plural) for the others? Since the Mass obligation only is mentioned is there an implication that the servile work obligation is NOT suppressed?

Many thanks for any comments. After much lurking, this is my first post and only made when I am curious 😉
 
Catholic262 said:
Since All Saints Day Nov 1 is on Monday the obligation to attend Mass is abrogated. I am wondering if the obligation to refrain from “servile” work is also abrogated.

The Canon Law Society of America makes this comment on canon 1246: “For those feasts not retained as holy days of obligation, the episcopal conference has two options: either to transfer the feast to a Sunday or to retain the feast on its proper day BUT to abolish the obligation to participate in the Eucharist AND abstain from servile work.”

But their next paragraph is a bit confusing: “In the United States, Epiphany and the Body and Blood of Christ are transferred to Sundays; Saint Joseph and Saints Peter and Paul are celebrated on their proper days, but the obligations are suppressed. Whenever January 1, August 15, or November 1 fall on a Saturday or a Monday, the obligation to attend Mass is suppressed.”

Why do they mention “obligation to attend Mass” for Nov 1 but mention “obligation(s)” (plural) for the others? Since the Mass obligation only is mentioned is there an implication that the servile work obligation is NOT suppressed?

Many thanks for any comments. After much lurking, this is my first post and only made when I am curious 😉
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As a non-canon lawyer (but not a complete doofus at this) I would think the answer is contained in Canon 1247. The canon says, “On Sundays and other holy days of obligation, the faithful are obliged to” abstain from servile work, etc. The question, then, is whether All Saints’ Day this year is a holy day of obligation. That answer, as it seems to me, is no.

Why? Look at 1246 §2. “With the prior approval of the Apostolic See, however, the conference of bishops can suppress some of the holy days of obligation or transfer them to a Sunday.” This is, I take it, the power that is being exercised in the case at hand. The power is not simply to “dispense with the obligation to attend Mass,” it is to “suppress . . . the holy days” themselves. (The corresponding Latin phrase matches: “quosdam ex diebus festis de praecepto abolere”). If a holy day of obligation is suppressed under 1246, then the day itself does not fall within the terms of 1247, and none of the specified obligations can apply.
 
Catholic262 said:
Since All Saints Day Nov 1 is on Monday the obligation to attend Mass is abrogated. I am wondering if the obligation to refrain from “servile” work is also abrogated.

The Canon Law Society of America makes this comment on canon 1246: “For those feasts not retained as holy days of obligation, the episcopal conference has two options: either to transfer the feast to a Sunday or to retain the feast on its proper day BUT to abolish the obligation to participate in the Eucharist AND abstain from servile work.”

But their next paragraph is a bit confusing: “In the United States, Epiphany and the Body and Blood of Christ are transferred to Sundays; Saint Joseph and Saints Peter and Paul are celebrated on their proper days, but the obligations are suppressed. Whenever January 1, August 15, or November 1 fall on a Saturday or a Monday, the obligation to attend Mass is suppressed.”

Why do they mention “obligation to attend Mass” for Nov 1 but mention “obligation(s)” (plural) for the others? Since the Mass obligation only is mentioned is there an implication that the servile work obligation is NOT suppressed?

Many thanks for any comments. After much lurking, this is my first post and only made when I am curious 😉
Click to expand...
#1) The first ‘obligation’ is plural because it applies to all four holy days (2 are transfered to Sunday and 2 are not, but all 4 are suppressed). The second ‘obligation’ is singular because all conditions apply to all the holy days listed (Jan 1, Aug 15, Nov 1) and no other condition seperates them.
#2) No, there is no ‘implication that the servile work obligation is NOT suppressed’.

You are not required to attend Mass and you are allowed to work on Nov 1, when it falls on a Saturday or a Monday.
 
In addition to Sunday, the days to be observed as holy days of obligation in the Latin Rite dioceses of the United States of America, in conformity with canon 1246, are as follows:

January 1, the solemnity of Mary, Mother of God
Thursday of the Sixth Week of Easter, the solemnity of the Ascension
August 15, the solemnity of the Assumption of the Blessed Virgin Mary
November 1, the solemnity of All Saints
December 8, the solemnity of the Immaculate Conception
December 25, the solemnity of the Nativity of Our Lord Jesus Christ

Whenever January 1, the solemnity of Mary, Mother of God, or August 15, the solemnity of the Assumption, or November 1, the solemnity of All Saints, falls on a Saturday or on a Monday, the precept to attend Mass is abrogated.

This decree of the Conference of Bishops was approved and confirmed by the Apostolic See by a decree of the Congregation for Bishops (Prot. N. 296/84), signed by Bernardin Cardinal Gantin, prefect of the Congregation, and dated July 4, 1992.
 
Thanks very much to both of you for those helpful explanations. It is a pity that these matters are not more clearly explained in some official forum. I know we shouldn’t be legalistic only in our observances but if we wish to follow church guidelines then those guidelines should be explicit in layman’s language. We shouldn’t have to try to understand and deduce the implications.

Thanks again.
 
Well someone better tell our diocese this because all the Catholic Schools are open (therefore the teachers, janitors, secretaries, etc. have to work). The parish office is open so I have to work.
 
I would think that your Bishop has the final say in interpretation for your diocese. If the Catholic schools are open then it is likely that the “abstention from work” requirement has been abrogated there.

Also, the rule used the term “unnecessary” work. Your office is open and it is necessary that you be there. You could also say that your work in the parish office is really furthering the worship of the Lord and is appropriate on a holy day.
 
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