T
TylerM
Guest
Hi all, thanks in advance for your responses. I am a former Anglican resolving concerns about the Catholic Church. I was exposed to the Theology of the Body through Christopher West, and while I was concerned about the contraception issue, I saw it as a positive and sacramental view of sexuality. However, as I began do some more digging, I found many important Church figures who endorsing a dimmer view of human sexuality. From St. Justin Martyr to Pope Saint Gregory, I discovered a sexual ethic that considers the sole end of intercourse procreation. Sex for “lesser” reasons(pleasure) is at least venially sinful. Here are some example of things I have found:
—First, it seems to contradict the experience of marital love. The dichotomy between pleasure and procreation is a false one, and the unitive aspects of sexuality are underemphasized. This view simply fails to realize the passion of sexuality as an expression of marital love.
—Second, considering the pleasure of sex sinful and downplaying the unitive aspect of sex is contrary to Sacred Scripture. Proverbs 5:15-19, Genesis 2:18-25
—Third, this seems to contradict current Church teaching. However, this negative view seems prevalent in the Early Church. If a change has truly occurred what does this mean for the rest of the Tradition?
I am really trying to resolve these apparent problems while holding on to a strong sense of Tradition, so any thoughts are appreciated. Thanks!
For we are children not of desire but of will. A man who marries for the sake of begetting children must practise continence so that it is not desire he feels for his wife, whom he ought to love, and that he may beget children with a chaste and controlled will. For we have learnt not to “have thought for the flesh to fulfil its desire” -St. Clement of Alexandria, Stromata Book III
I find this problematic for two reasons.In Eden, it would have been possible to beget offspring without foul lust. The sexual organs would have been stimulated into necessary activity by will-power alone, just as the will controls other organs. Then, without being goaded on by the allurement of passion, the husband could have relaxed upon his wife’s breasts with complete peace of mind and bodily tranquility, that part of his body not activated by tumultuous passion, but brought into service by the deliberate use of power when the need arose, the seed dispatched into the womb with no loss of his wife’s virginity. So, the two sexes could have come together for impregnation and conception by an act of will, rather than by lustful cravings (City of God, Book 14, Chapter 26).
—First, it seems to contradict the experience of marital love. The dichotomy between pleasure and procreation is a false one, and the unitive aspects of sexuality are underemphasized. This view simply fails to realize the passion of sexuality as an expression of marital love.
—Second, considering the pleasure of sex sinful and downplaying the unitive aspect of sex is contrary to Sacred Scripture. Proverbs 5:15-19, Genesis 2:18-25
—Third, this seems to contradict current Church teaching. However, this negative view seems prevalent in the Early Church. If a change has truly occurred what does this mean for the rest of the Tradition?
I am really trying to resolve these apparent problems while holding on to a strong sense of Tradition, so any thoughts are appreciated. Thanks!