T
Tannhauser
Guest
As above. Is it Scriptural? What’s the justification?
Sex by 2 unmarried people = fornicationAs above. Is it Scriptural? What’s the justification?
Did it happen in Scripture, in any number of narrative accounts read literally? Yes.As above. Is it Scriptural? What’s the justification?
Best response. Thank-you; helpful.Sex by 2 unmarried people = fornication
Gal 5:
19 Now the works of the flesh are plain*: fornication, impurity, licentiousness, 20 idolatry, sorcery, enmity, strife, jealousy, anger, selfishness, dissension, party spirit, 21 envy, * drunkenness, carousing, and the like. I warn you, as I warned you before, that those who do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.
When a sin is serious enough to keep one out of heaven, i.e. they go to hell if they die with this sin on their soul, it is a mortal sin.
Best response! Thank-you; helpful.
1 Jn 5:
*16 If any one sees his brother committing what is not a mortal sin, he will ask, and God * will give him life for those whose sin is not mortal. There is sin which is mortal; I do not say that one is to pray for that. 17 All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin which is not mortal. *
Notice John says sins that aren’t mortal (i,e, venial sins) one can pray and ask forgiveness and their sins are forgiven. But John says it’s not that way with mortal sins.
As regards the [your] bold, I was fascinated by John’s seeming acknowledgement of that difference which exist between what we name venial and mortal sin; and then I read the commentary in my Douay.Sex by 2 unmarried people = fornication
Gal 5:
19 Now the works of the flesh are plain*: fornication, impurity, licentiousness, 20 idolatry, sorcery, enmity, strife, jealousy, anger, selfishness, dissension, party spirit, 21 envy, * drunkenness, carousing, and the like. I warn you, as I warned you before, that those who do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.
When a sin is serious enough to keep one out of heaven, i.e. they go to hell if they die with this sin on their soul, it is a mortal sin.
1 Jn 5:
*16 If any one sees his brother committing what is not a mortal sin, he will ask, and God * will give him life for those whose sin is not mortal. There is sin which is mortal; I do not say that one is to pray for that. 17 All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin which is not mortal. *
Notice John says sins that aren’t mortal (i,e, venial sins) one can pray and ask forgiveness and their sins are forgiven. But John says it’s not that way with mortal sins.
Are you asking what does one do to get rid of mortal sin?As regards the [your] bold, I was fascinated by John’s seeming acknowledgement of that difference which exist between what we name venial and mortal sin; and then I read the commentary in my Douay.
“The difference can not be the same as betwixt sins that are called venial and mortal: for he says, that if a man pray for his brother, who commits a sin that is not to death, life shall be given him: therefore such a one had before lost the life of grace, and been guilty of what is commonly called a mortal sin.”
And he seems to be right: the idea that life will be given to he that commits a sin not unto death, suggests that such a man has lost that sanctifying life [grace], as one does when a mortal sin is committed. I am at a loss on this one.
That is not what the OP asked. Read post #1. The question was not about sex by 2 unmarried people.Sex by 2 unmarried people = fornication
Based on the OP response in post #6, the missing words (implied) in the OP question are "Is the prohibition of sex…? So steve b’s response was appropriate.That is not what the OP asked. Read post #1. The question was not about sex by 2 unmarried people.
Didn’t Abraham have sex with Hagar? They weren’t married. See Genesis 16.Sex before marriage, also known as fornication, is explicitly condemned in the Bible.
What happen to Hagar and her child as a result?Didn’t Abraham have sex with Hagar? They weren’t married. See Genesis 16.
Are you saying this was explicitly condemned by the Bible?
How does this relate to the OP? Read post #1.What happen to Hagar and her child as a result?
Not much of a blessing was it?
I answered your question. If it didn’t relate, why did you ask the question?How does this relate to the OP? Or is this a different topic?
No, you didn’t answer my question. Please, read my post again.I answered your question. If it didn’t relate, why did you ask the question?
Didn’t Abraham have sex with Hagar? They weren’t married. See Genesis 16.
Your response had nothing to do with what I asked.Are you saying this was explicitly condemned by the Bible?
What happen to Hagar and her child as a result?
That response not only had nothing to do with my questions, but was not an answer to anything. Your response was simply more questions. Not an answer.Not much of a blessing was it?
Didn’t Abraham have sex with Hagar? They weren’t married. See Genesis 16.
Are you saying this was explicitly condemned by the Bible?
Thanks. Guess the OP’s original post was not as specific as it could have been.Based on the OP response in post #6, the missing words (implied) in the OP question are "Is the prohibition of sex…? So steve b’s response was appropriate.
Whether it was a blessing or not is a separate question.What happen to Hagar and her child as a result?
Not much of a blessing was it?
Of course Hagar need not be considered Abram’s wife. And of course Abram and Hagar had a child. As Scripture attests.The 10 commandments were given in Exodus under Moses.
- Abraham was married to Sarah .
- Genesis doesn’t say specifically that Hagar became Abraham’s wife #2.
- therefore, your question is, if Hagar is NOT Abraham’s wife, did he do something condemned in scripture by having sex with her?
However,
- The 7th commandment is “thou shall not commit adultery” (unfaithful spouse)
- Since the 10 commandments were given after Abraham
- Abraham can’t be guilty of breaking a law that wasn’t given yet
Was Hagar Abraham’s wife or not?
Ishmael is Abraham’s 1st born son through Hagar. 1st born sons are a HUGE DEAL in the OT. All the promises go to the 1st born son. But God didn’t make the covenant in that direction with Abram’s 1st born. He made it with the Sarah and Issac direction which happened almost 20 years after Ishmael was born.
What’s YOUR conclusion?