S
spencer2
Guest
what is the church’s teaching about sex during pregnancy? is it allowed or illicit?
It is possible that one person wrote that but it doesn’t fit with what the church has taught as a whole. The marital act is both procreative and unitive.the reason that i ask is that i read some old literature (cant remember what source) from the middle ages that the church condemned this act because it was considered pleasure seeking and a form of “wasting seed.”
this is NOT a recommended source of Catholic Theology.May a married couple engage in natural intercourse during the wife’s pregnancy, or during her period?
catechism.cc/articles/QA.htm#07
Yes it is permitted in general.what is the church’s teaching about sex during pregnancy? is it allowed or illicit?
It’s only potentially harmful to the baby if you are at risk for going into pre-term labor as orgasm can induce small contractions. So it’s probably only potentially harmful like 0.5 percent of the time. The baby is well protected in the uterus which is far away from where the action takes placecant this be harmful to the baby?
I have just been taught it was wrong even though nobody told me about it. It just doesn’t seem to be… ehh I don’t know the word… hmm normal?
So far, my response is the only one that offers a theological argument as to WHY marital relations during pregnancy is morally licit. (As some of you may know, St. Thomas said that it was morally illicit.)what is the church’s teaching about sex during pregnancy? is it allowed or illicit?
The “unitive aspect” of marital relations is a modern construct. In the middle ages, the moral paradigm was that of the “marital debt”, whereby each spouse’s body was pledged to the other. During this period, the mainstream theological position was that marital relations during pregnancy was sinful for the spouse requesting payment of the marital debt, but not for the spouse who was merely honoring the request.the reason that i ask is that i read some old literature (cant remember what source) from the middle ages that the church condemned this act because it was considered pleasure seeking and a form of “wasting seed.”
this is** NOT **a recommended source of Catholic Theology.For my theological explanation, based on the teaching of the Magisterium concerning the three fonts (sources) of morality and the procreative meaning of marital relations, see this page:
catechism.cc/articles/QA.htm
You might also want to read the first two posts:
- May a married couple engage in natural intercourse during the wife’s pregnancy, or during her period?
- What determines the morality of an act?
- What determines the morality of a sexual act?
source pleasethe reason that i ask is that i read some old literature (cant remember what source) from the middle ages that the church condemned this act because it was considered pleasure seeking and a form of “wasting seed.”
My mistake. St. Thomas incorrectly taught that marital relations during menses is morally illicit.It would be interesting to know that St. Thomas Aquinas said sex during pregnancy is illicit, and I would appreciate the citation to his writings for this.
I’m really glad that belief in private revelations isn’t required, because I find this statement both highly offensive and theologically problemmatic. Taken at its face, it means that Mary’s parents considered legitimate marital relations as an “unclean temptation,” which I believe is at serious odds with Jewish understanding then or now. Intercourse during a woman’s period, yes, but in general - marital relations were considered a “good” in marriage, not an “unclean temptation.”The claim is false that the teaching on the unitive meaning of marital realtions is new or recent. St. Thomas and St. Augustine both taught that the marital act is ordered toward a threefold good, summarized as: proles, fides, sacramentum (offspring, fidelity, the sacrament). St. Thomas’ explanation of fides and more generaly explanations of marriage in the Summa clearly indicate the unitive meaning as one of these three goods.
“marriage is directed to the begetting and rearing of children, as well as to the community of life.”
newadvent.org/summa/5064.htm#article7
“Just as the marriage promise means that neither party is to have intercourse with a third party, so does it require that they should mutually pay the marriage debt. The latter is indeed the chief of the two, since it follows from the power which each receives over the other. Consequently both these things pertain to faith…”
“By sacrament we are to understand not only indivisibility, but all those things that result from marriage being a sign of Christ’s union with the Church. We may also reply that the unity to which the objection refers pertains to faith,”
newadvent.org/summa/5049.htm#article2
The terminology is different, but the unitive meaning is certainly indicated.
My mistake. St. Thomas incorrectly taught that marital relations during menses is morally illicit.
newadvent.org/summa/5064.htm#article3
Blessed Anne Catherine Emmerich has this to say about marital relations during pregnancy:
“It was explained to me here that the Blessed Virgin was begotten by her parents in holy obedience and complete purity of heart, and that thereafter they lived together in continence in the greatest devoutness and fear of God. I was at the same time clearly instructed how immeasurably the holiness of children was encouraged by the purity, chastity, and continence of their parents and by their resistance to all unclean temptations; and how continence after conception preserves the fruit of the womb from many sinful impulses. In general, I was given an overflowing abundance of knowledge about the roots of deformity and sin.”
Life of the Blessed Virgin Mary