Sex-Related Question

  • Thread starter Thread starter TheNeutral
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
T

TheNeutral

Guest
As established, oral, hand, and all other sexual acts therein, completed to climax–that aren’t conducive to a pregnancy are mortal sins…

However,

If one were to somehow indulge in one of these acts to climax, and somehow inserted the semen into their spouse afterwards, would it still be a mortal sin? How much flexibility are people given in this matter?

As I side question; I heard that men cannot receive these to climax, but women can due to not be responsible for injected life. If this is true, why wouldn’t they make it a sin on the basis of sexual inequality… or is that not how God operates?
 
I’m no biologist, but I think that semen losses it’s vitality the moment it hits the air.
 
Assuming, for this instance, it is true. What if the husband were to coordinate with his wife to reach the threshold then ejaculate vaginally. Would it still be sinful since the threshold was passed via non-procreative means, even if the end result was conducive for procreation?
 
It’s not really clear what it is you are asking. Are you asking if it’s okay for a man to stimulate his wife to orgasm after he ejaculated in her already? Because that’s been addressed before and the general consensus is that it’s okay.
 
Apologies for the confusing wording. There is a certain point when a male gets stimulated where they can no longer resist ejaculating, however, there is a moment of time between this point and the actual ejaculation itself.

If a woman were to stimulate a man to this “point of no return” orally or with their hand, but aligned themselves so that the semen would instantly go into her, would it still be a sin.

The process would look something like this.
(Conventional) Vaginal Stimulation → Threshold → Ejaculation
(Suspect) Non-Vaginal Stimulation → Threshold → Penis-Vagina alignment → Ejaculation
Would the suspect method be sinful?
 
I can only tell you what I’ve read from others and remember. Basically, if she does oral or manual manipulation as foreplay (not as the sole sexual act) that’s fine, but ideally there should be some amount of regular old intercourse because that’s how the act of procreation is order to go.

I don’t recall the specific situation you talk about being mentioned before, so hopefully someone with more knowledge would be able to answer this directly.
 
Also, I see you made this unlisted. If you post it elsewhere people with more in depth knowledge may be able to answer you.
 
I think it was someone else who made it unlisted. Perhaps they didn’t like the question.

Update: cawebmaster, a moderator–unlisted it.
 
You may have put it in the wrong sub-forum, and maybe they’ll move it later. There was a lot of questions about this sort of thing in Family Life, or at least back on the old forum.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top