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This, also, is the reason for the teaching against homosexuality. A marriage can only occur between a man and a woman, because only they–if healthy–can give birth to children. No matter how healthy a male or female couple is, it cannot reproduce on its own. It’s simply not a function that can be achieved with that combination of organs.

Or to be blunt, reproductive and digestive organs don’t mix.
And I see sexuality and marriage as something infinitely more than a “combination of organs.” I think we have established that quite fully.

As an aside, does the Catholic Church teach that the marriage is invalid if heterosexual couples engage in sexual activity as part of their relationship that does not include only that specific combination of organs which will lead to pregnancy along with that which could? It may well, but I don’t know.
 
Out of curiosity, OtherEric, what do you see as the argument under philosophy and natural law for monogamy?
 
And I see sexuality and marriage as something infinitely more than a “combination of organs.” I think we have established that quite fully.

As an aside, does the Catholic Church teach that the marriage is invalid if heterosexual couples engage in sexual activity as part of their relationship that does not include only that specific combination of organs which will lead to pregnancy along with that which could? It may well, but I don’t know.
Karen,

If I understand your question correctly, the CC teaches that every act of intercourse must be open to the possibility of life. In the basic terms, this means that yes, that the specific combination of organs which lead to pregnancy must be involved.

You can PM for more details. I’m not a prude and am willing to discuss in more biologically applicable terms in a non-public situation.
 
Karen,

If I understand your question correctly, the CC teaches that every act of intercourse must be open to the possibility of life. In the basic terms, this means that yes, that the specific combination of organs which lead to pregnancy must be involved.

You can PM for more details. I’m not a prude and am willing to discuss in more biologically applicable terms in a non-public situation.
Thanks for the offer, but I think that will be sufficient in terms of graphic descriptions:) I was pretty sure that the Catholic Church did not endorse such regardless of who was involved, but I was unsure as to whether it would consider such to be grounds to determine that that marriage was therefore no longer valid in the eyes of the church or simply grounds for assigning acts of penance and a promise not to do so again (I am presuming the confessional is the only way the church would ever find out anyway, as long as the situation was consensual).
 
And I see sexuality and marriage as something infinitely more than a “combination of organs.” I think we have established that quite fully.

As an aside, does the Catholic Church teach that the marriage is invalid if heterosexual couples engage in sexual activity as part of their relationship that does not include only that specific combination of organs which will lead to pregnancy along with that which could? It may well, but I don’t know.
Hi Karen,
The Catholic Church teaches that it is a sin for any semen to be spilt, or placed in any position other than the correct organ (sorry for wording, I did not want to be explicit).
So oral sex within a valid marriage would be a sin if you know what was to occur.
As for using it as a stimulant so the semen can be used as God wants, I think is ok.
 
God created man and woman, so that they should be the intimate partner of each other. He did not create men to be partners of men.
In the beginning God told Adam to choose from among all the beasts for a companion. So I would think that He would not take issue with a few Adam & Adam partnerships.
 
And I see sexuality and marriage as something infinitely more than a “combination of organs.” I think we have established that quite fully.
Yes, and the human person is more than an ambulatory bag of guts. But if you spill those guts, it dies. In the same way, sexuality is more than a combination of organs, but it cannot be divorced from those organs. We are material beings, not spirits.

And just as it is wrong to kill the innocent, it is wrong to misuse one’s organs.
 
Thanks for the offer, but I think that will be sufficient in terms of graphic descriptions:) I was pretty sure that the Catholic Church did not endorse such regardless of who was involved, but I was unsure as to whether it would consider such to be grounds to determine that that marriage was therefore no longer valid in the eyes of the church or simply grounds for assigning acts of penance and a promise not to do so again (I am presuming the confessional is the only way the church would ever find out anyway, as long as the situation was consensual).
when I first read this is was confused, as I didn’t know why you were talking about “invalid marriages”. But then I read your original question. sorry.

Actually, I a marriage would not be invalidated by the couple participating in “non standard sexual practices” (by which I understand to be anything besides coitus). A marriage can only be annulled (that is the catholic legal term) only if something were to found deficient in the couple at the time the ceremony was performed.

I also am assuming that the marriage was properly consummated (in the traditional way :p).

“Non standard sexual practices” (aside from adultery) has no bearing on validity of the marriage. The Church would consider such acts as oral sex, sodomy, mutual masterbation sinful, however (even inside the marriage). There is some disagreement among priests and laity about that last point, however.

Does that help?
 
Actually, a marriage would not be invalidated by the couple participating in “non standard sexual practices” (by which I understand to be anything besides coitus). A marriage can only be annulled (that is the catholic legal term) only if something were to found deficient in the couple at the time the ceremony was performed.
This is what I was asking, thanks. I thought this was probably the case, but I have been wrong in my assumptions about Catholicism before 🙂
 
This is what I was asking, thanks. I thought this was probably the case, but I have been wrong in my assumptions about Catholicism before 🙂
No problem. It’s a big religion with 2000 years of history. There’s a lot to know.
 
I just spent several days explaining why. Natural law, applied so sinuously is to undermine it as a system of judgment.

Depends which encyclicals (i.e. from whom). I recognise all seven Ecumenical Councils

Except it causes you more problems when you state it as a system of absolute judgment, and then make heaps of illogical exceptions.

No, I’ve pointed out when you say something is bad, and then make exceptions, it seems to undermine belief in ‘natural law’.

No. I don’t care about ‘purpose’. I care about God saying it’s wrong. Where you come unstuck is talking about ‘purpose’ as a rule, and then making exceptions for infertile couples (those unable to through impairment OR choice) and those who choose not even to form unions (such as priests).

I don’t judge it to be arbitrary. God’s making the rule.

I disagree with the ‘pleasure’ argument too, because it’s one one can find holes in. For instance a man might find pleasure being with an animal. An animal, not having any say in it, it’s own ‘pleasure’ or not would therefore be irrelevant. Simply then that he could find pleasure, doesn’t make it right.

That’s the problem with your system, and her system. They’re both applying human reasonings and they come up short. God says it. It’s enough.
What you have spent several days doing is repeatedly asserting the same flawed objections to what you imagine Natural Law to be. You have repeatedly stated that infertile couples and those who choose celibacy objectively violate the Natural Law and have obstinately refused to acknowledge all reasoning to the contrary. You maintain that your final authority is God and that your position on all morality comes directly from Him. Whether or not you accept any intermediate authority is a fairly open question. You maintain that sexuality is intrinsically without purpose and that any rules that govern it amount to nothing more that God’s arbitrary standard.

You do not seem to recognize what Natural Law is meant to be. Natural Law is the language that God has written all of creation in. You can’t reasonably deny that there are larger purposes behind God’s moral code based on the manner in which creation has been constructed. If you did, you would also, ultimately, have to deny that man is made in the image and likeness of his creator. Once you do that, it follows that there are certain things that man was created to be able to do and certain things that he was not created to do by virtue of his being created in a specific fashion.

That Natural Law is written into the very fabric of our being is not hard to see. Plato and Aristotle, who had no knowledge of God, were able to articulate lucid reasons against homosexual behavior. The ancient Chinese, the Hindus and the Buddhists were able to do this as well. That these individuals and cultures did not require God to tell them directly what was right and wrong regarding homosexual behavior implies that God has created an objective reference accessible by the use of reason entirely apart from knowledge of His existence.

The Church, having the requisite authority vested in her by God, therefore is able to use reason to determine what the fundamental purposes behind Natural Law are. She notices that God has given to man the gift of sexuality that will allow him to participate, with God, in creation. She reasons that there is no moral obligation to use this faculty. She further reasons that if this faculty is to be used, that it must be used in the proper way. Given the sacred nature of the sexual gift, it becomes eminently important that it never be misused.

In this way, the Church arrives at the conclusion that sexuality has a dual purpose in both procreation and the union of the couple. Since this purpose is one you have repeatedly misrepresented in this thread, I feel I must repeat this: sexuality has a dual purpose in both procreation and the union of the couple. Neither purpose can be deliberately frustrated if one intends to use the sexual faculty. Notice, here, that there is absolutely no requirement that the sexual faculty must be used, simply that it must be used *properly *if chosen to be used.

The proper use of sexuality is one that does not deliberately frustrate either the procreative or the unitive purpose of sexuality. It is this word “deliberate” that seems to give you problems. It is meant to illustrate an act of willfully choosing to frustrate the purpose of the sexual act in order to achieve one’s own end.

(continued below . . .)
 
(. . .continued from above)

It is here that you have thrown in your two favored examples, the infertile couple and the same-sex couple. You intuit an exception to the Natural Law because an infertile couple can never be procreative, just as a homosexual couple can never be procreative. What you have obstinately failed to understand is that the two couples are in no way equivalent.

In the case of an infertile couple, some element of the biology is not working in the way it should. I want you to notice the phrase I use here: not working the way it should. It is recognized that the infertility of one of the partners is not an element of their created design. It is a handicap. It is not a result of a deliberate choice that the couple has made. Since the sterile nature of one of the individuals in such a couple is not an element of their created design, there can be no sin in using the sexual faculty. They remain an opposite-sex couple objectively open to the creation of life even though the sexual organs are corrupted in such a way that conception may never take place.

In the case of a same-sex couple, it is the created nature of their genders that contradicts conception. A man-man or woman-woman couple can never be fertile. There is no equivalent handicap that prevents conception. There is only the willful choice of a partner whose very nature renders the sexual act closed to life.

To draw equivalence between the choices of an infertile, opposite-sex partner versus a partner of the same sex is similarly wrong-headed. Even with the knowledge that a potential partner is infertile, there can be no violation of the Natural Law in looking past that partner’s handicap, as it can never be a component of that person’s true self in the way that gender is.

You are right that God has said what is right and what is wrong. He has done this based on His design for creation, the Natural Law. It is so hard-wired into creation that it is accessible across cultural and religious barriers. This tells me that God does not desire His creation to be filled with automatons that simply do what He says because He says it. Instead, He has gifted to man the faculty of reason because He expects him to use it. True, it may be clouded and we may never be able to see the Truth but through a dark glass but this does not mean that God wills us to cast aside the gift of reason in favor mechanical submission.
 
Out of curiosity, OtherEric, what do you see as the argument under philosophy and natural law for monogamy?
The argument for monogamy flows from the unitive nature of the sexual act. To choose multiple partners for one’s sexual outlet is to avoid any true union with any of them. It reduces the sexual gift from one of intimate communion to one of variety for a hedonistic end or a procreative end divorced from true intimacy.
 
What you have spent several days doing is repeatedly asserting the same flawed objections to what you imagine Natural Law to be. You have repeatedly stated that infertile couples and those who choose celibacy objectively violate the Natural Law and have obstinately refused to acknowledge all reasoning to the contrary.
You offer *reasons *but they are attempts to justify arbitrary exceptions to your rule.

You have gone on for some time explaining away why these exceptions are possible - if you’re happy about stating one thing as an absolute and allowing exceptions in the next breath, that’s up to you.
You maintain that your final authority is God and that your position on all morality comes directly from Him. Whether or not you accept any intermediate authority is a fairly open question. You maintain that sexuality is intrinsically without purpose and that any rules that govern it amount to nothing more that God’s arbitrary standard.
No I say purpose is irrelevant. God tells you something and you invent reasons to justify it, reasons that ultimately appeal to your own self.

One can speculate on purpose till the cows come home.

You’re like saying “God makes this rule, but he’s got to convince **ME **that it’s logical.”
 
In the beginning God told Adam to choose from among all the beasts for a companion. So I would think that He would not take issue with a few Adam & Adam partnerships.
I know a blind person who has a *companion *dog. Does that mean I should suspect that they’re having sex?

I know that God made man for woman, and woman for man. That is enough for me. Whether you want to believe that Adam ‘tried-out’ the animals first or not is up to you. (as this seems to be something you consider a possibility)
 
The argument for monogamy flows from the unitive nature of the sexual act. To choose multiple partners for one’s sexual outlet is to avoid any true union with any of them. It reduces the sexual gift from one of intimate communion to one of variety for a hedonistic end or a procreative end divorced from true intimacy.
Just for the record (now don’t fall off your chair)…I tend to agree with you on this one 😃 .

I am curious, however about how this squares with the widespread practice of polygamy in Scripture? I know that bishops, elders and deacons were called to be the husbands of but one wife (each 🙂 ), but if it was such a prime fundamental issue for the church, why is there not a general specific prohibition against it (or is there and I do not recall it?), especially as it was practiced in the Jewish Scriptures? If there had to be specific instructions that these church leaders could only have one wife, then it is obvious that there were those in the church who had more than one.
 
You offer *reasons *but they are attempts to justify arbitrary exceptions to your rule.

You have gone on for some time explaining away why these exceptions are possible - if you’re happy about stating one thing as an absolute and allowing exceptions in the next breath, that’s up to you.

No I say purpose is irrelevant. God tells you something and you invent reasons to justify it, reasons that ultimately appeal to your own self.

One can speculate on purpose till the cows come home.

You’re like saying “God makes this rule, but he’s got to convince **ME **that it’s logical.”
I have offered reasons, but you have once again chosen not to address them. The reasons demonstrate why they are not exceptions and your argument thus far has amounted to nothing more compelling than “they are exceptions because I say so.” I challenge you to quote and rebut each reason I have provided.

Further, if the purpose of a thing is irrelevant, then that thing cannot really be said to have a purpose. Therefore, if the purpose of the sexuality is irrelevant, then logically it is a faculty that can be used to whatever end we choose. If God happens to say not to do one thing with the sexuality but that this prohibition is completely unrelated to what sexuality is for, then God is, logically, being arbitrary.

It is true one can offer all sorts of rationalizations to justify one’s own ends regarding the sexuality. Several here have tried. Still you cannot simply dismiss the faculty of reason so blithely. The fact remains that, fallen as it is, we need the use of our reason to even begin to understand what it is that God is saying. What you’re saying, that reason contradicts submission to God, is nothing more than a senseless defense of ignorance.
 
Just for the record (now don’t fall off your chair)…I tend to agree with you on this one 😃 .

I am curious, however about how this squares with the widespread practice of polygamy in Scripture? I know that bishops, elders and deacons were called to be the husbands of but one wife (each 🙂 ), but if it was such a prime fundamental issue for the church, why is there not a general specific prohibition against it (or is there and I do not recall it?), especially as it was practiced in the Jewish Scriptures? If there had to be specific instructions that these church leaders could only have one wife, then it is obvious that there were those in the church who had more than one.
As Catholics, we draw our divine revelation from more than just Scripture. Along with Scripture we also have Tradition, which is comprised of those teaching that the Church has taught since her founding. The universal prohibition against polygamy can be found here.

Now, it is true that polygamy was allowed under the Jewish tradition, as was divorce. Curiously, Christ Himself directly confronted the discrepancy when challenged on it by the Pharisees. Christ’s reply to them was that divorce was a product of the hardness of men’s hearts. He then pointed out that it was not that way in the beginning.(1) When we look at the beginning, we see the creation of one man and one woman, not one man with multiple women nor vice versa.

That there is no specific prohibition on the practice of polygamy does not imply that its practice in the Christian community existed. It may have been understood. Similarly, there may not have any specific prohibition on roasting infants alive with whatever vegetables happened to be in season. People understood, without having to be told, that this would be unacceptable.

(1) The New American Bible. Washington: United States Conference of Catholic Bishops, 2002. Matthew 19:6-8. Available online at: http://www.usccb.org/nab/bible/matthew/matthew19.htm.
 
As Catholics, we draw our divine revelation from more than just Scripture. Along with Scripture we also have Tradition, which is comprised of those teaching that the Church has taught since her founding. The universal prohibition against polygamy can be found here.

Thanks.

That there is no specific prohibition on the practice of polygamy does not imply that its practice in the Christian community existed. It may have been understood. Similarly, there may not have any specific prohibition on roasting infants alive with whatever vegetables happened to be in season. People understood, without having to be told, that this would be unacceptable.

My point was that there is a specific prohibition against it, but only in the context of bishops, elders and deacons. If it had been universally understood as totally unacceptable, then why would there be the need to single out that those church leaders should be the husband of only one wife? Obviously they had to be told in the case of the church leaders. There is not, for instance, a particular and specific prohibition against such things as running through the streets naked with ducks on their heads, either, so one could fairly safely assume that wasn’t a major issue.

It struck me as curious that it was not done with the wider application that the one against divorce was. I don’t see the prohibition that church leaders be the husband of only one wife as necessarily simply an extension of the prohibition against divorce, as that would hardly be a new teaching at this time. I’m referencing 1 Timothy 3 and Titus 1.

It is possible that the issue of polygamy was only a fairly common one in the particular communities to which these letters are addressed, Ephesus and Crete. It may be that it was more common only among those in high social position who might reasonably expect or be expected to become the leaders of a religious community because of that position. It may be that there were many converts in these areas from groups in which polygamy was common, so that they came into the religion with multiple wives. I find these better arguments than “nobody would ever think of it as possible.”
 
I am curious, however about how this squares with the widespread practice of polygamy in Scripture? I know that bishops, elders and deacons were called to be the husbands of but one wife (each 🙂 ), but if it was such a prime fundamental issue for the church, why is there not a general specific prohibition against it (or is there and I do not recall it?), especially as it was practiced in the Jewish Scriptures? If there had to be specific instructions that these church leaders could only have one wife, then it is obvious that there were those in the church who had more than one.
Not everything in the Old Testament is an ideal. Some of it is merely what happened.

Even when people were allowed to do things God allowed it because people were in a less mature spiritual state
 
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