Sexual Impotancy/Barreness

[MattAndy]

What is the churches stance on sex between a married couple when one of the couple is sexually impotent or barren? In other words, is it a sin to have sex with your wife if you fully know that she is physically unable carry a child?

 

[Della]

No, it’s not a sin. The Church only requires that the couple be able to perform the marital act, not be able to produce children. After all, some people who were told they were infertile conceived while others who were thought to be healthy never do. This applies to elderly couples, as well. After all Abraham and Sarah and Zechariah and Elizabeth conceived in their old age–it’s possible if not very likely. But nothing happens if there is no marital act.

 

[MattAndy]

Ok thanks, I was just curious because I know how serious the Church is about the conception of children. Another question… is impotency a grounds for annulment?

 

[Seatuck]

Ok thanks, I was just curious because I know how serious the Church is about the conception of children. Another question… is impotency a grounds for annulment?

Impotency not sterility is grounds for nullity if it was present at the time of the marriage vows and persisted.

Canon 1084.1 Antecedent and perpetual impotence to have sexual intercourse, whether on the part of the man or on that of the woman, whether absolute or relative, by its very nature invalidates marriage.
Canon 1084.2 If the impediment of impotence is doubtful, whether the doubt be one of law or one of fact, the marriage is not to be prevented nor, while the doubt persists, is it to be declared null.
Canon 1084.3 Without prejudice to the provisions of canon 1098, sterility neither forbids nor invalidates a marriage.

It is true that the church is serious about the openness for children as being part of marriage. It is also serious about the meaning and importance of the marital act within marriage.

 

[Della]

Ok thanks, I was just curious because I know how serious the Church is about the conception of children. Another question… is impotency a grounds for annulment?

Not if it wasn’t a factor going into the marriage. If a spouse becomes impotent after the marriage it isn’t grounds for annulment.

 

[1ke]

It sounds as if you are confusing impotence and infertility.

*Impotence *is the inability to have intercourse. *Infertility *is the inability to conceive children.

Impotence is an impediment to a valid marriage only if it is permanent and present at the beginning of the marriage. It is not “grounds” for nullity if it develops later (i.e., old age, medical condition, or an accident).

Infertility is not grounds for a decree of nullity, per se. Infertility *could *be cause for a decree of nullity if it were part of fraud. By that I mean if one party knew the were infertile and withheld that from the other, and the party that had information withheld from them would have chosen not to marry if they had known this information beforehand.