Sexual question

  • Thread starter Thread starter brendenseth
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Timothysis said:
A couple is open to fertility when they do not place artificial barriers as a means to prevent conception. That is a far cry from saying that a man must climax inside of his wife to avoid sin. The phrase “beyond union in one flesh” suggests something on a higher plane than simply a biological process of reproduction.
Click to expand...
Every sexual act between husband and wife must end with the husband climaxing inside his wife. You cannot be open to fertility if he climaxes outside his wife.
 
thistle said:
Every sexual act between husband and wife must end with the husband climaxing inside his wife. You cannot be open to fertility if he climaxes outside his wife.
Click to expand...
I do not mean to be obtuse but this simply sounds like your personal interpretation.

Canon 1643 of the catechism speaks of the unity of persons “beyond union in one flesh…to forming one heart and soul,” not the intricacies of relations between man and wife. Various sexual acts are certainly unitive in their function even though they might not end in the manner that you demand. The absence of artificial barriers makes one open to fertility in the same way that NFP does. Again, intent has much to do with it.
 
Timothysis said:
I do not mean to be obtuse but this simply sounds like your personal interpretation.

Canon 1643 of the catechism speaks of the unity of persons “beyond union in one flesh…to forming one heart and soul,” not the intricacies of relations between man and wife. Various sexual acts are certainly unitive in their function even though they might not end in the manner that you demand. The absence of artificial barriers makes one open to fertility in the same way that NFP does. Again, intent has much to do with it.
Click to expand...
Open to fertility means husband climaxing inside his wife with no contraception.

All sexual activity MUST end with the act being completed by the husband climaxing inside his wife.
Under your thought process a wife masturbating her husband to orgasm outside of her is okay and it most definitely not. That is a sin of grave matter.
 
thistle said:
Open to fertility means husband climaxing inside his wife.
Husband and wife who have sexual activity without that (assuming both agree) are committing a sin of grave matter.
Click to expand...
OK, do you have a source for your statement?
 
Timothysis said:
I take it, by your silence, that the answer is “no.”
Click to expand...
That is what open to fertility means.

I see you declined to answer my question so I will repeat it.
Is it correct in your opinion that the Church allows a wife to masturbate her husband to orgasm outside of her and that it is not a sin of grave matter.

By the way I take exception to your sarcastic remark about my silence. My entire day is not occupied sitting in front of my computer waiting for you to ask me something. Some of us have other things to do and look at the computer only from time to time!
 
Next time you are at the computer can you also answer my question about how fear is “unitive”…
 
Gilly_flower said:
Next time you are at the computer can you also answer my question about how fear is “unitive”…
Click to expand...
If the wife has some medical or psychological problems then they should abstain until that is resolved. If they are happy enough to engage in sexual activity then it must end with the husband climaxing inside the wife.
 
A loving wife may understand and wish accommodate the needs and wishes of a much-loved husband, while dreading the consequences both during the act, and until the appearance, or non-appearance, of her next period. How is such fear in any way unitive?
 
Gilly_flower said:
A loving wife may understand and wish accommodate the needs and wishes of a much-loved husband, while dreading the consequences both during the act, and until the appearance, or non-appearance, of her next period. How is such fear in any way unitive?
Click to expand...
The needs of the husband are not being accommodated if she bars him from entering her and climaxing.
 
So her fear of the consequences both during and after the act are simply to be ignored???
 
Gilly_flower said:
So her fear of the consequences both during and after the act are simply to be ignored???
Click to expand...
As I said, if she has real medical or psychological problems then abstaining is the answer until resolved, and not committing a grave sin.

Also the OP has not said if they have discussed their problems with a priest. That would have been better than coming here first.
 
thistle said:
Every sexual act between husband and wife must end with the husband climaxing inside his wife. You cannot be open to fertility if he climaxes outside his wife.
Click to expand...
I never climaxed outside of my wife, I NEVER CLIMAXED! She asked me to stop before finishing and I did. The only reason we had sex in the first place was because I had stimulated her before, so I knew we were required to have sex. My wife had apprehensions before we began, but I didn’t want to commit a sin so we started it. She was still worried while it began so I stopped.
 
thistle said:
As I said, if she has real medical or psychological problems then abstaining is the answer until resolved, and not committing a grave sin.

Also the OP has not said if they have discussed their problems with a priest. That would have been better than coming here first.
Click to expand...
I came here first because I have gone to our priest about a lot of sexual things, and was embarrassed to bring another thing to him that didn’t need to be. I’m glad I did, I don’t think we did anything wrong. We didn’t use any kind of birth control so we fulfilled being open to life. I never “pulled out” I just never finished. There is pre ejaculate which I in no way could ever control, so if it was really to be so my wife could get pregnant!
 
thistle said:
That is what open to fertility means.
Click to expand...
If that is, indeed, what “open to fertility” means, then how is it that NFP can be considered licit (i.e. open to fertility) when a couple purposely abstains from sex during those times when conception is most possible? I cannot find any Catholic source that defines “open to fertility” as being that a husband must climax in his wife all the time, every time. Your use of canon 1643 does not support your interpretation of said phrase.
thistle said:
I see you declined to answer my question so I will repeat it.
Is it correct in your opinion that the Church allows a wife to masturbate her husband to orgasm outside of her and that it is not a sin of grave matter.
Click to expand...
If the Church allows it, then I take it that it is permissible. 🤷
thistle said:
By the way I take exception to your sarcastic remark about my silence. My entire day is not occupied sitting in front of my computer waiting for you to ask me something. Some of us have other things to do and look at the computer only from time to time!
Click to expand...
That’s an odd thing to say, coming from someone with over 18,000 posts. :eek:
 
thistle said:
The needs of the husband are not being accommodated if she bars him from entering her and climaxing.
Click to expand...
The “needs of the husband?” Isn’t the sexual act supposed to be a unitive act, not one simply to fulfill one’s “needs?”
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top