Shift in the Western Understanding of Filioque to Eastern View?

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And we still do think. The main reason why some Orthodox theologians are open to it now with qualification is because Roman Catholic theologians have largely moved away from the medieval model of understanding the procession of the Holy Spirit. For example, I often see Metropolitan John (Zizioulas) misconstrued as being an Orthodox proponent for the Filioque, but that is not the case. He is only saying that if Roman Catholics believe in the Filioque as being equivalent to saying the Spirit progresses essentially from the Son (which I must point out is not the same as saying that the Spirit receives the divine nature from the Son), or manifests eternally through the Son, but does not share in the free, personal causality of the Father (this phrasing, I must point out, is rather unique to Metropolitan John, I have not seen other Orthodox writers speak of causality in this fashion), then it could be conceived of as bring consistent with Orthodox theology. In this case, the softening of the Orthodox stance seems to have come about because of a shift of contemporary Roman Catholic theology towards Orthodox thought, not really because of one within Orthodox thought itself.
I started this thread to reply to this comment because the Mod has asked posters to start another thread for those who wish to discuss the Filioque.

Cavaradossi, does your statement have a real basis in fact and History? Has the West shifted its understanding of the Filioque to fit Orthodoxy or have those Easterns you quoted shifted their misunderstanding of the Western filioque?
 
Mary - for my part, I’ll requote a relevant paragraph from the CCC (248), together with the two preceeding paragraphs that discuss the Filioque:
246 The Latin tradition of the Creed confesses that the Spirit “proceeds from the Father and the Son (filioque)”. The Council of Florence in 1438 explains: “The Holy Spirit is eternally from Father and Son; He has his nature and subsistence at once (simul) from the Father and the Son. He proceeds eternally from both as from one principle and through one spiration. . . . And, since the Father has through generation given to the only-begotten Son everything that belongs to the Father, except being Father, the Son has also eternally from the Father, from whom he is eternally born, that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Son.”
247 The affirmation of the filioque does not appear in the Creed confessed in 381 at Constantinople. But Pope St. Leo I, following an ancient Latin and Alexandrian tradition, had already confessed it dogmatically in 447, even before Rome, in 451 at the Council of Chalcedon, came to recognize and receive the Symbol of 381. The use of this formula in the Creed was gradually admitted into the Latin liturgy (between the eighth and eleventh centuries). The introduction of the filioque into the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed by the Latin liturgy constitutes moreover, even today, a point of disagreement with the Orthodox Churches.
248 At the outset the Eastern tradition expresses the Father’s character as first origin of the Spirit. By confessing the Spirit as he “who proceeds from the Father”, it affirms that he comes from the Father through the Son. The Western tradition expresses first the consubstantial communion between Father and Son, by saying that the Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son (filioque). It says this, “legitimately and with good reason”, for the eternal order of the divine persons in their consubstantial communion implies that the Father, as “the principle without principle”, is the first origin of the Spirit, but also that as Father of the only Son, he is, with the Son, the single principle from which the Holy Spirit proceeds. This legitimate complementarity, provided it does not become rigid, does not affect the identity of faith in the reality of the same mystery confessed.
This seems to be indicative of a reconciliation, of sorts, of the Western tradition to the Eastern, in the words of the Catholic Church.

The question remains whether this nuanced understanding and explanation would be acceptable to the Orthodox as a long-term answer, settling the controversy.
 
Mary - for my part, I’ll requote a relevant paragraph from the CCC (248), together with the two preceeding paragraphs that discuss the Filioque:

This seems to be indicative of a reconciliation, of sorts, of the Western tradition to the Eastern, in the words of the Catholic Church.

The question remains whether this nuanced understanding and explanation would be acceptable to the Orthodox as a long-term answer, settling the controversy.
Well then, we have to deep dive into what was written by the Western scholars from the late First Millennium to today.
 
I started this thread to reply to this comment because the Mod has asked posters to start another thread for those who wish to discuss the Filioque.

Cavaradossi, does your statement have a real basis in fact and History? Has the West shifted its understanding of the Filioque to fit Orthodoxy or have those Easterns you quoted shifted their misunderstanding of the Western filioque?
I think a lot of it really is indicative of a shift in the Western mentality. One recurrent problem in medieval theology was that multiple Greek words were conflated in translation into the same verb, procedere. Similarly, the Latins seemed to have little understanding of the difference between being from the Son and being through the Son. If I recall correctly, even Thomas Aquinas was stumped by this distinction, saying that those who admitted through the Son but not from the Son were doing do out of obstinance. All of these distinctions between multiple Greek verbs and between through and from are now generally acknowledged, and the Vatican’s (at least I think it was a statement from the Vatican) statement on the filioque attempts to interpret the Latin filioque through this framework, with a level of precision that the medieval Latins simply could not have achieved. This is certainly an improvement, from the Orthodox point of view, at least.
 
Well then, we have to deep dive into what was written by the Western scholars from the late First Millennium to today.
Dear brother, I think sometimes that retrospective approach to these issues bogs us down in the problems of the past. The premise here, and some of Cavaradossi’s points, permit us to view this subject from the understanding of the present day. Perhaps that permits some more open acknowledgement on both sides as to the present state of “theological rapprochement” on this particular subject.
 
Dear brother, I think sometimes that retrospective approach to these issues bogs us down in the problems of the past. The premise here, and some of Cavaradossi’s points, permit us to view this subject from the understanding of the present day. Perhaps that permits some more open acknowledgement on both sides as to the present state of “theological rapprochement” on this particular subject.
But how do we know there is this development of understanding if we do not compare the understanding from then to the understanding from today?
 
But how do we know there is this development of understanding if we do not compare the understanding from then to the understanding from today?
This is the same question that frustrates the rapprochement between the non-Chalcedonians and the Chalcedonians. Even if we agree that our faiths are compatible, there is still the problem of how both sides understand the Council of Chalcedon.
 
But how do we know there is this development of understanding if we do not compare the understanding from then to the understanding from today?
I comfortably leave that to the theologians of the Catholic Church (His Holiness being a great one, in his own right) to resolve. A view has been expressed in the CCC and elsewhere, acknowledging the issue of the Filioque and explaining it in relation to the teachings of the Council of Nicea. This tells me that (i) the Catholic Church sees the importance of the exercise, (ii) does not deny the integrity of the Council nor the Creed set forth by it and (iii) as seems to be the case more often than not, is willing to go beyond entrenchment in its own standards to seek true reconciliation with the Apostolic Churches. I see the effort here as being truly significant in that regard.

Personally, I would love to see the Filioque dropped as a plain gesture of willingness to concede an easily concedable point. We’re half way there already. It would be a hoot to see how that would be received by the Orthodox Churches. My guess would be that it would be acknowledged only as a start, with a long way yet to go. That would be an unfortunate response IMHO, if proven to be the case.
 
This is the same question that frustrates the rapprochement between the non-Chalcedonians and the Chalcedonians. Even if we agree that our faiths are compatible, there is still the problem of how both sides understand the Council of Chalcedon.
I was at one talk with Fr. John Behr and he said that unity with the Oriental Orthodox must start at the grassroots level, the laity. The theologians aren’t getting it done because they can’t stop arguing 😛
 
This is the same question that frustrates the rapprochement between the non-Chalcedonians and the Chalcedonians. Even if we agree that our faiths are compatible, there is still the problem of how both sides understand the Council of Chalcedon.
I fully agree with respect to that challenge, yet the Filioque seems to be a less complex situation. The Catholic Church is not denying a Council, although I understand how the persistent usage of the Filioque could be seen as such. As I said above and in related threads, I would love to see the Catholic Church simply drop it as a quintessential ecumenical gesture. Still waiting …
 
I was at one talk with Fr. John Behr and he said that unity with the Oriental Orthodox must start at the grassroots level, the laity. The theologians aren’t getting it done because they can’t stop arguing 😛
likely because they are stuck in the past
 
I fully agree with respect to that challenge, yet the Filioque seems to be a less complex situation. The Catholic Church is not denying a Council, although I understand how the persistent usage of the Filioque could be seen as such. As I said above and in related threads, I would love to see the Catholic Church simply drop it as a quintessential ecumenical gesture. Still waiting …
They can’t drop the dogma. Only dropping the word in the creed is meaningless.
 
They can’t drop the dogma. Only dropping the word in the creed is meaningless.
What dogma?

BTW - I love your avatar! It’s also nice to have another Orthodox contributor here, so welcome again!
 
I think a lot of it really is indicative of a shift in the Western mentality. One recurrent problem in medieval theology was that multiple Greek words were conflated in translation into the same verb, procedere. Similarly, the Latins seemed to have little understanding of the difference between being from the Son and being through the Son. If I recall correctly, even Thomas Aquinas was stumped by this distinction, saying that those who admitted through the Son but not from the Son were doing do out of obstinance. All of these distinctions between multiple Greek verbs and between through and from are now generally acknowledged, and the Vatican’s (at least I think it was a statement from the Vatican) statement on the filioque attempts to interpret the Latin filioque through this framework, with a level of precision that the medieval Latins simply could not have achieved. This is certainly an improvement, from the Orthodox point of view, at least.
I want to express that, the Roman Catholic Church accepts both phrases:
Catechism of the Catholic Church, 248: “At the outset the Eastern tradition expresses the Father’s character as first origin of the Spirit. By confessing the Spirit as he “who proceeds from the Father”, it affirms that he comes from the Father through the Son. The Western tradition expresses first the consubstantial communion between Father and Son, by saying that the Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son (filioque). It says this, “legitimately and with good reason”, for the eternal order of the divine persons in their consubstantial communion implies that the Father, as “the principle without principle”, is the first origin of the Spirit, but also that as Father of the only Son, he is, with the Son, the single principle from which the Holy Spirit proceeds. This legitimate complementarity, provided it does not become rigid, does not affect the identity of faith in the reality of the same mystery confessed.”
 
I think a lot of it really is indicative of a shift in the Western mentality. One recurrent problem in medieval theology was that multiple Greek words were conflated in translation into the same verb, procedere. Similarly, the Latins seemed to have little understanding of the difference between being from the Son and being through the Son. If I recall correctly, even Thomas Aquinas was stumped by this distinction, saying that those who admitted through the Son but not from the Son were doing do out of obstinance. All of these distinctions between multiple Greek verbs and between through and from are now generally acknowledged, and the Vatican’s (at least I think it was a statement from the Vatican) statement on the filioque attempts to interpret the Latin filioque through this framework, with a level of precision that the medieval Latins simply could not have achieved. This is certainly an improvement, from the Orthodox point of view, at least.
That sounds accurate–but it also doesn’t sound like a shift in belief, but like a clearer understanding of the Eastern position.

It seems to me that the basic question between Catholics (including Eastern Catholics) and Orthodox is whether the two positions are different ways of professing the same faith (even if one–say the Western way–is inferior), or whether a different faith is being professed.

I have strong misgivings about the Filioque, and for a while a few years ago I seriously considered becoming Orthodox (that’s not the only time but it was the most serious), partly because of this. But in the end I think there are reasons to take the former (Catholic) position. I simply can’t say that the Western Church is actually professing a different faith.

Edwin
 
That sounds accurate–but it also doesn’t sound like a shift in belief, but like a clearer understanding of the Eastern position.

It seems to me that the basic question between Catholics (including Eastern Catholics) and Orthodox is whether the two positions are different ways of professing the same faith (even if one–say the Western way–is inferior), or whether a different faith is being professed.

I have strong misgivings about the Filioque, and for a while a few years ago I seriously considered becoming Orthodox (that’s not the only time but it was the most serious), partly because of this. But in the end I think there are reasons to take the former (Catholic) position. I simply can’t say that the Western Church is actually professing a different faith.

Edwin
Hey Edwin, I posted that the Roman Catholic Church accepts both phrases and the reason it does. The post is right above yours, I hope that it helps! 🙂 Also if you ever consider joining the Catholic Church, from me personally, you are always welcome! 🙂
 
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