J
Jay53
Guest
It is not inconsistent at all. Jesus (who IS God) clearly addresses baptism in John 3:5. Jesus does not say anything about baptism from the dead. St. Paul (who IS NOT God) makes a statement in Corinthians that *Joseph Smith and Mormons *have interpreted to mean the dead should be baptized, but it is not the correct interpretation according to Jesus’ Church.That is an inconsistent reply. You are not being logical here. Your question was:
Why does God need earthly people to do work in order to extend His mercy to someone who has died? Why would He not accept a deceased person’s repentance at the time of their death?
I could ask you the same question about baptisms for the living:
Why does God need earthly people to do work in order to extend His mercy to someone who is living? Why would He not accept a living person’s repentance at the time of their baptism?
Your reply that “because Jesus said so (John 3:5)” does not address the question. I can give you the same reply about the dead that you have given about the living. God has commanded it to be done that way (1 Corinthians 15:29).
Then you need to educate yourself more before asking such questions. Protestants bring the same argument against baptisms for the living that you being against baptisms for the dead. They say that God doesn’t need people to do such “earthly work” in order to extend His mercy to those who believe and repent.
I said I don’t know about the Protestant’s argument because I am obviously not Protestant and Jesus is very clear about baptism of the living. My statement was more because I think they are flat out wrong and I don’t know why they argue the way they do - I don’t think there is anything they can say that would convince me they are right when Jesus is clear.