Shouldn't the biggest ecumenical concern be the epiclesis?

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Keep in mind the phrase “in persona Christi” is a Latin theological concept. Anyway, Jimmy wasn’t diminishing the role of the priest, he was simply saying that a very scholastic approach reduces the institution narrative to magical words (do X → get y).

However, I had a Latin canon lawyer explain to me the institution narrative in a very like fashion to the Eastern conception of Epiclesis - we don’t necessarily claim it’s at that moment the Mystery occurs but we do know it’s (1) a progressive realization and (2) by the indicated time it is truly the Body and Blood.
Whether it is a Latin term does not signify (certainly Jimmy knows this term as you yourself do), i.e., I was reminding him who the priest represents during the consecration, i.e., the words spoken are Christ’s words, and so they are not “magical” they are divine.
 
Whether it is a Latin term does not signify (certainly Jimmy knows this term as you yourself do), i.e., I was reminding him who the priest represents during the consecration, i.e., the words spoken are Christ’s words, and so they are not “magical” they are divine.
It appears you have completely misunderstood. Jimmy and MorEphrem are not saying that the Institution Narrative is magic. They are cautioning against the excesses of the Latin preoccupation with the “moment of consecration” that has a danger of turning the narrative into magic words.

Also, we don’t use the theological construct of “in persona christi.” When one comes to the Eastern Catholicism forum it is considered bad form to insist upon using Latin terminology with those of us who do not use such constructions.
 
josie L;11456103:
Whether it is a Latin term does not signify (certainly Jimmy knows this term as you yourself do), i.e., I was reminding him who the priest represents during the consecration, i.e., the words spoken are Christ’s words, and so they are not “magical” they are divine.
It appears you have completely misunderstood. Jimmy and MorEphrem are not saying that the Institution Narrative is magic. They are cautioning against the excesses of the Latin preoccupation with the “moment of consecration” that has a danger of turning the narrative into magic words.

Also, we don’t use the theological construct of “in persona christi.” When one comes to the Eastern Catholicism forum it is considered bad form to insist upon using Latin terminology with those of us who do not use such constructions.
Yes. Quite what I said early on in this thread, [post=11266474]here[/post]:
The concept of “the moment of Consecration” is strictly Western and totally alien to the Orient and East. It simply doesn’t exist. For us, the bare minimum for “validity” (to use another Scholastic concept) is the Preface (the Father), the Institution Narrative (the Son), and the Epiklesis (the Holy Ghost). Preferably, though, we consider the Anaphora as a whole to be consecratory. This is perhaps most evident in the ACoE recension of the ancient Anaphora of Ss Adai & Mari, which contains no explicit Institution Narrative, yes is considered (even by Rome) to be consecratory.
In particular to the Syriac Churches there is also the Rite of the Fraction which, while not consecratory in itself, is seen as the completion of the action. I believe it’s similar for the Copts.
and [post=11267183]here[/post]:
It’s interesting that I recently had a conversation with a very eminent Canon Lawyer (a JOCD who happens to be a close personal friend) about just this topic. In discussing the “bare minimum” concept (i.e, Preface, Institution, Epiklesis), he said “absolutely right! If I presented it just that way to the CDW even they’ll agree.”

The entire Scholastic idea of p(name removed by moderator)ointing one particular moment is what I’ve called in the past “magic words syndrome” and is something 100% alien to Oriental tradition. For us, the manifestation of the Real Presence is a completion. And there are some who hold that that very completion is only accomplished with the Rite of Fraction. It is there that we have the first (“minor”) elevation, and it after it that we have the second (“major”) elevation.
 
It appears you have completely misunderstood. Jimmy and MorEphrem are not saying that the Institution Narrative is magic. They are cautioning against the excesses of the Latin preoccupation with the “moment of consecration” that has a danger of turning the narrative into magic words.

Also, we don’t use the theological construct of “in persona christi.” When one comes to the Eastern Catholicism forum it is considered bad form to insist upon using Latin terminology with those of us who do not use such constructions.
I know you don’t, and furthermore I’m not trying to impose any such language on anyone, however, since, he was speaking with regard to the Latin rite, then it’s not impolite of me to point out as I did that our priests are acting “in persona christi.” I still state that his response was a little irreverent, and I was responding to a specific post, not all.
 
I find it somewhat strange that about half of ecumenical dialogues with Eastern Christians seems to revolve around the filioque.
The filioque and the epiclesis are important questions of course, but there are others including the papal questions and the recognition of each other’s saints. For example, there is St. Josaphat who is highly regarded by many Greek Catholics, but E. Orthodox have an entirely different negative view of him. As for the epiclesis, there is something similar to an epiclesis in the Roman Catholic Masses, so I don’t think it would be an insolvable issue that would prevent reunion.
 
Whether it is a Latin term does not signify (certainly Jimmy knows this term as you yourself do), i.e., I was reminding him who the priest represents during the consecration, i.e., the words spoken are Christ’s words, and so they are not “magical” they are divine.
As Denho said, Jimmy and I were simply warning against a mechanical mentality of doing X procures Y - even divine words can be treated like magic. If the Institution Narrative by its very self was the consecratory factor in the Latin Eucharistic Prayer than, in theory, a priest could probably [validly and illicitly] pray these words over a host and it would become the Body of Christ. This is, however, not the case. It is rather that at that point in the Latin liturgy, since preface (Father), Epiclesis (Spirit) and Institution Narrative (Son) are present, a valid consecration has been achieved. Again, this is not my opinion but I consulted with a Latin canon lawyer.

In regards to the Latin epiclesis: wdtprs.com/blog/2011/09/quaeritur-epiclesis-in-the-roman-canon/
 
I’m not intentionally “being difficult”. My goal is not to argue for the sake of argument while ignoring the proper answer. I’m looking for intellectual satisfaction, which I have not gotten from the first batch of replies to my inquiry.

You don’t need to have full comprehension of the divine mystery to know the moment when the consecration occurs. I mean, Latin Christians believe “This is my Body” / “This is the Chalice of my Blood” are the words which confect the consecration; but they are words that have to be spoken, which take time, so I cannot give you a reasoned analysis backed by temporal physics for how the consecration happens here. Does it happen the nanosecond in which the priest pronounces the first “t” noise? Or is the transubstantiation a process that takes time, which happens over the course of the whole sentence? This I cannot answer. I’m willing to accept that it is not something that I am supposed to know, nor is it at all important to my belief in God and His Church.

It IS troubling, however, to think that if I am mistaken as to when the consecration occurs, that I am either worshiping bread and wine as if it were Christ, OR I am viewing Christ and thinking He is merely bread and wine. This is a serious problem for me, and the problem has compounded upon hearing the justifications for this.

Well, that’s a much more satisfying answer: the consecration doesn’t happen AT the epiclesis (necessarily), it’s just that this is when the Eastern Christians KNOW FOR A FACT that the consecration has occurred at this point.

Still, this is at odds with the Latin understanding of it. If the Divine Liturgy is merely a different expression of the Holy Mass (and vice versa), then theologically speaking, it should be the same sacramental power (for it comes from the same Holy Spirit). Bearing that in mind, how can the consecration occur at a different time, simply because the Latin and Eastern theological opinions differ? And if they do occur at the same time, is this not the conundrum that I have pointed out before?

Imagine this hypothetical scenario: a Latin Christian is attending a Divine Liturgy. The Eastern priest has just finished saying the epiclesis, but before the Words of Institution can be spoken, he is stricken by lightning and drops dead instantly. So what is on the altar? The Latin Christian would say bread and wine, for the consecration has not occurred yet. The Eastern Christian would say the Body and Blood of Christ.
The event you described could not happen, at least in the Eastern Orthodox Church, because the Epiklesis is prayed after the Words of Institution.
If a Priest dies after the beginning of the Divine Liturgy, another Priest would have to be brought in to complete the Liturgy.

Fr. John W. Morris
 
The event you described could not happen, at least in the Eastern Orthodox Church, because the Epiklesis is prayed after the Words of Institution.
If a Priest dies after the beginning of the Divine Liturgy, another Priest would have to be brought in to complete the Liturgy.

Fr. John W. Morris
Also, in Eastern Catholic churches, at least of the Constantinopolitan tradition, the epiclesis occurs after the Institution Narrative.
 
The filioque and the epiclesis are important questions of course, but there are others including the papal questions and the recognition of each other’s saints. For example, there is St. Josaphat who is highly regarded by many Greek Catholics, but E. Orthodox have an entirely different negative view of him. As for the epiclesis, there is something similar to an epiclesis in the Roman Catholic Masses, so I don’t think it would be an insolvable issue that would prevent reunion.
In his commentary on the Divine Liturgy, St. Nicholas Cabasilas states that the prayer in the Roman Canon asking God to receive the offerings on His Altar in Heaven qualifies as an Epiklesis.

Fr. John W. Morris
 
In his commentary on the Divine Liturgy, St. Nicholas Cabasilas states that the prayer in the Roman Canon

We most humbly beseech Thee, almighty God, command these offerings to be borne by the hands of Thy holy Angels to Thine altar on high, in the sight of Thy divine majesty, that as many as shall partake of the most holy Body ☩ and Blood ☩ of Thy Son at this altar, may be filled with every heavenly grace and blessing. Through the same Christ our Lord. Amen
qualifies as an Epiklesis.

Fr. John W. Morris
 
The concern of the OP as regards the moment of sanctification of the Holy Gifts, reminded me of the ongoing ambiguity (controversy?) as to whether the wine is sanctified at all during the Liturgy of the Presanctified Gifts.

There is also an interesting article by Fr Michael Zheltov: books.google.com.au/books?id=tzKRvEdtS1MC&pg=PA263#v=onepage&q&f=false or mzh.mrezha.ru/lib/zheltov/zhl2010e.pdf.
During the Divine Liturgy of the Presanctified Gifts the Priests drops a piece of the Preconsecrated gifts which are the consecrated bread upon which the consecrated wine was dropped with the spoon into the unconsecrated wine. The mixture of the consecrated bread and wine with the unconsecrated wine consecrates the wine.

Fr. John W. Morris
 
During the Divine Liturgy of the Presanctified Gifts the Priests drops a piece of the Preconsecrated gifts which are the consecrated bread upon which the consecrated wine was dropped with the spoon into the unconsecrated wine. The mixture of the consecrated bread and wine with the unconsecrated wine consecrates the wine.

Fr. John W. Morris
I have heard this before and I have heard another Eastern Orthodox school of thought that the wine does not become consecrated and for this reason infants are not receive the Presanctified Gifts. Have you heard of this? I know both sides have been debated on a certain Orthodox forum.
 
Serving as deacon in the Russian tradition, I follow the Presanctified rubrics which warn the deacon not to partake of the cup at the clergy communion (ie, to preserve the Eucharistic fast so that the remaining Lamb can be consumed by the deacon at the end of the Liturgy). This reflects what I understand to be the Russian tradition, not to consider the holy wine as sanctified by the Lamb - even if this does not represent the more ancient strand of Byzantine tradition, according to the scholars.

Personally, I am not troubled by the diversity, assuming everyone is earnestly following their particular tradition.
 
I have heard this before and I have heard another Eastern Orthodox school of thought that the wine does not become consecrated and for this reason infants are not receive the Presanctified Gifts. Have you heard of this? I know both sides have been debated on a certain Orthodox forum.
You are correct. The Russian rubrics state that the person who will consume the gifts after the Liturgy, should not drink from the chalice during Communion. However, the Antiochian rubrics state that the clergy are to take Communion as usual. There is a book published by St. Vladimir’s Press, I believe that it is Evening Worship in the Orthodox Church by Nicholas Uspensky. He argues that the Russian practice is a Latinization that came in through the works of Peter Mogila. The idea that the mixture of the consecrated wine in the presanctified gifts consecrates the wine in the chalice makes sense, because when we use multiple chalices, the wine in only one chalice is actually consecrated, just as the Lamb not the particles on the diskos is consecrated. Before Communion a little wine from the consecrated chalice is poured into the chalices that will be used for Communion, the idea being that the mixture of the consecrated wine with the unconsecrated wine consecrates the uncosecrated wine.

Fr. John W. Morris
 
You are correct. The Russian rubrics state that the person who will consume the gifts after the Liturgy, should not drink from the chalice during Communion. However, the Antiochian rubrics state that the clergy are to take Communion as usual. There is a book published by St. Vladimir’s Press, I believe that it is Evening Worship in the Orthodox Church by Nicholas Uspensky. He argues that the Russian practice is a Latinization that came in through the works of Peter Mogila. The idea that the mixture of the consecrated wine in the presanctified gifts consecrates the wine in the chalice makes sense, because when we use multiple chalices, the wine in only one chalice is actually consecrated, just as the Lamb not the particles on the diskos is consecrated. Before Communion a little wine from the consecrated chalice is poured into the chalices that will be used for Communion, the idea being that the mixture of the consecrated wine with the unconsecrated wine consecrates the uncosecrated wine.

Fr. John W. Morris
Makes sense, Father. Thanks for sharing. 👍 It reminds me of St Paul’s saying, “A little leaven leavens the whole lump.” Of course he was speaking on another topic but it sounds like the same principle. 😃
 
Makes sense, Father. Thanks for sharing. 👍 It reminds me of St Paul’s saying, “A little leaven leavens the whole lump.” Of course he was speaking on another topic but it sounds like the same principle. 😃
It is just like Holy Water. When I am out blessing houses and only have a little Holy Water in my sprinkler, I add more water to the already blessed water. The unblessed water is blessed by being mixed with the blessed water.

Fr. John W. Morris
 
You are correct. The Russian rubrics state that the person who will consume the gifts after the Liturgy, should not drink from the chalice during Communion. However, the Antiochian rubrics state that the clergy are to take Communion as usual. There is a book published by St. Vladimir’s Press, I believe that it is Evening Worship in the Orthodox Church by Nicholas Uspensky. He argues that the Russian practice is a Latinization that came in through the works of Peter Mogila. The idea that the mixture of the consecrated wine in the presanctified gifts consecrates the wine in the chalice makes sense, because when we use multiple chalices, the wine in only one chalice is actually consecrated, just as the Lamb not the particles on the diskos is consecrated. Before Communion a little wine from the consecrated chalice is poured into the chalices that will be used for Communion, the idea being that the mixture of the consecrated wine with the unconsecrated wine consecrates the uncosecrated wine.

Fr. John W. Morris
You are correct. It is in Evening Worship in the Orthodox Church. Uspensky provides a good deal of evidence that the original and correct belief is that the wine is consecrated by contact with the preconsecrated Lamb.
 
The Mystery of the Eucharist as I understand it far transcends the problem stated here. The
Sacrifice of the Cross is made present in the Eternal moment. When Christ rose from the dead although he appeared and even ate, etc. His was a spiritual transcendent Body that
is no longer bound by space or time. He is in the Father in the Eternal moment.
We certainly do not base our Faith on the Shroud -yet in a beautiful gift to us I believe
the radiation that surged through Jesus’ Body at the moment of the Resurrection actually
produced the photographic image that science has not been able to understand. I mention
this simply because this is the Eternal moment when Jesus transcended time and space.
By Faith we enter that moment in the Mass - the time difference does not affect this.
 
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