N
Neithan
Guest
There have been sad cases where bishops grossly mishandled sexual sins of priests and religious brothers/sisters in their dioceses (e.g. Ireland); however, why is it ipso facto wrong for a bishop to avoid publicly denouncing his priest and turning him over to civil authorities? Why is this criticized as a “cover-up”?
We have a duty to avoid scandal:
As for the objection that the priests should have been turned over to civil authorities: *why? *What happened to the separation of Church and State? There is a double standard at work here. Why isn’t ecclesiastical law and order sufficient? Of course it remains the right of any victim to alert the police and lay charges, but ought we to expect a bishop to incriminate his priest?
We have a duty to avoid scandal:
While it may be impossible to defend some bishops’ ill-informed decisions in recent decades to move an abusive priest from one parish to another, their secrecy in dealing with his sins can hardly be criticized; they were simply acting according to their moral duty to avoid scandal. Ironically, this has created an even greater scandal, but can the bishops be blamed for not foreseeing this?2489 Charity and respect for the truth should dictate the response to every request for information or communication. The good and safety of others, respect for privacy, and the common good are sufficient reasons for being silent about what ought not be known or for making use of a discreet language. The duty to avoid scandal often commands strict discretion. No one is bound to reveal the truth to someone who does not have the right to know it.
As for the objection that the priests should have been turned over to civil authorities: *why? *What happened to the separation of Church and State? There is a double standard at work here. Why isn’t ecclesiastical law and order sufficient? Of course it remains the right of any victim to alert the police and lay charges, but ought we to expect a bishop to incriminate his priest?