Since Mary was sinless did she have a free choice to consent to bear Jesus?

[per4mer530]

As Catholics, I know that a big part of why we honor Mary so much is because of the consent she gave to the Holy Spirit to bear Jesus. However, in light of her Immaculate Conception and sinlessness, it is confusing to me how she had free will in the matter. Not consenting to bear the Son of God would have been a sin on her part, but since she was born without original sin, how could she have had a choice in the matter? To me, the good deeds and faith of the saints are more commendable because the saints actually needed to overcome the adversity of original sin. Thanks for your help…I’m somewhat new to the faith, and I’m trying to figure out the church’s devotion to the Blessed Mother.

 

[Fr.Vincent_Serpa]

Hi,

Being sinless does not take away free will nor does it take away the possibility of being tempted. Lucifer was created without original sin and he completely turned away for God for all eternity. Adam and Eve were created without original sin and freely chose to sin. Even our blessed Lord was tempted. Mary always chose to obey God. She could have said no. Her love was real. Programmed love is not love. Love is always a choice.

Fr. Vincent Serpa, O.P.