Prodigal Son, thank you for clarifying your comments, I think what you’re sounding makes more sense now.
The moral question, though, doesn’t have to do with whether I think less of a person for doing something. It has to do with whether doing that thing will make their lives more bountifully blessed and rich with virtue and wonder.
However, if doing something does NOT lead to the above, does that automatically mean it is sinful? One could use this argument to state, for example, that NFP is sinful because being providentialist will “make their lives more bountifully blessed”.
As emotional intimacy grew in my marriage, and as my wife felt safer and safer with me, she suddenly began to experience very powerful orgasms in the course of our lovemaking. If we had looked for “outside help”, in the form of vibrators and whatnot, I don’t think we would have ever gotten to the point we’re at now.
While I’m happy for you and your wife, I think it is a bit rash to jump to the conclusion that this is the case for ALL married couples. I can think of some medical conditions, for example, that would not lead to complete impotence, for example some cases of paraplegia where a man are still capable of having sex and fathering children, but would still be too disabled to take any “active” role in sex and make it very difficult for him to bring pleasure to his wife. That’s the kind of situation where I think use of a vibrator might be licit.
Now, could this result in the wife lusting, sure, but if we are supposed to refrain from all sexual acts that could result in lust, then it seems many wives who unfortunately have husbands who have sex with them merely out of lust would be licit in REFUSING sex, however I have never seen anyone claim the Church teaches this. Indeed, the Church teaches that even if one spouse is using contraception, the “innocent” spouse still has a duty to have sex and is not sinning themselves. (Unless you think that a wife who requests a husband use a vibrator is sinning, but the husband himself is not.)
Your comment about my imagination may be apt. And please note that I never said that women need to peak from intercourse alone. I said that vibrators shouldn’t be involved; that’s all.
Again, thanks for the clarification; from your apparent stance on the other topic that oral stimulation is not licit at all, much less to bring anyone to orgasm, plus the comments about vibrators, I had indeed gotten the impression that you thought the only licit way to procure orgasm was male-female intercourse.
Now, I agree that the use of a vibrator would be sinful if it leads to lust on part of the wife, or I suppose in part of the husband if he wants to see his wife orgasm not out of love, but out of lust because the sight would pleasure him. But this is a big IF. I’m sure this would be the case for many, perhaps most, couples. But I just don’t think your own experiences give you authority to say “this act is 100% sinful in every circumstance” the way you could say that about using pornography.
All this being said, I do think that some Christians and Catholics go too far in the opposite direction and think “the marriage bed is undefiled” means that “anything goes in the marriage bed”. Some people seem to think “it’s impossible to lust after one’s spouse” and I’ve seen some claim “God has ordained that marriage is the only licit source of sexual pleasure” (usually as a way to guilt spouses with a lower libido into having sex with the partner with the higher libido) and really do seem to think that having sex merely for pleasure is just fine as long as it takes place within marriage. I think this is wrong-headed as well.