Slavery and Christianity

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If I’m understanding this correctly, we’re meant to believe either that slavery is wrong and Jesus sinned for not calling it out (despite never being challenged with the subject in Scripture), or that slavery is OK for the same reason. Talk about Fawlty reasoning.
 
A great resource that I was reading dealt with the understanding of slavery in the OT and NT. It’s called Hard Sayings by Trent Horn. It has two chapters dealing with this issue
 
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Secret_Square:
While they pondered the moral implications of abolishing slavery, they also had to face the fact that doing so at that time was likely to lead to war and extreme social disruption.
The Church is supposed to be a light in the darkness, but it proved unwilling to speak out against such travesties.
I doubt that is true as blanket statement. As with every other issue we have discussed about Christianity and the Catholic Church: you have the behavior of individuals, and you have the teaching and behavior of the whole. Just like any other belief system. You don’t stop going to doctors because some doctors do abortions.
We have to assume at least some of those involved with the local churches at the time also had no moral difficulties at all with slavery.
Why do you “have to assume” that?
Given the overwhelming body of Christian action in the world to free oppressed peoples in all areas, why assume that anyone had no moral difficulties. I would assume the opposite.
 
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That’s a very poor understanding of the Bible if I’ve ever seen one.
You’re suggesting that the Bible doesn’t instruct on how to increase the practice of slavery or to harm slaves without fear of punishment?

Let’s start with the practice of slavery. When God talks to his people in Exodus 20 on (including Exodus 21 which contains many of the instruction on getting and using slaves) where were the Israelites? They were wandering the desert. They did not possess slaves. If you want to say the people once owned slaves, the Bible says they were in captivity in Egypt for 430 years. That means none of the people who were in the desert were alive when that was true, nor were many generations before them. We don’t get a pass to do something today because our ancestors did it in 1589.

Leviticus 25:44 instructs God’s people that they may acquire slaves from neighboring nations. If God was against the practice of slavery and was trying to wean people off the practice (as some claim) then surely he would want his people to have more slaves who in turn will breed even more slaves. Pro-slavery Christians will often point out how slavery was used to pay off debts (which is really indentured servitude) but shy away from these lifelong slaves. Also those same pro-slavery Christians will ignore how God tells his people how to blackmail male Hebrew slaves into serving beyond his 6 year stretch by withholding his family.

As far as mistreating slaves without punishment, the granddaddy passage has to be Exodus 21:20-21. It allows for slave owner to kill his slave with a rod so long as the slave doesn’t die the same day he’s beaten. In the passage God assures the slave owner would not be punished for that. For good measure God describes the reason as the slave is merely property.
 
Thank you for your answer, but that’s not what I’m suggesting. What I’m saying is that the Bible is hardly an instruction manual and isn’t meant to be read as such. When one takes verses found in any of the books of the Bible that support violent or barbaric ways and then said person uses this to demonstrate why the Scriptures are seemingly incoherent, contradictory etc to the Christian Faith (and more specifically, our one Holy Faith), then one seems to have missed the entire point of the Scriptures and their purpose. If it is an instruction manual, it’s a very incomplete one for sure.
 
You’re suggesting that the Bible doesn’t instruct on how to increase the practice of slavery or to harm slaves without fear of punishment?
The whole Bible doesn’t. The OT on its own does.
The NT doesn’t call for the abolition of slavery and urged converts under slavery to endure and seek freedom when the opportunities arise because it was never meant to upend economic and political systems. But also stated:
the sexually immoral, men who practise homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine, in accordance with the gospel of the glory of the blessed God with which I have been entrusted. -1 Tim 1:10-11
Philemon doesn’t call for abolition explicitly but it is hinted.
 
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Why do you “have to assume” that?
Given the overwhelming body of Christian action in the world to free oppressed peoples in all areas, why assume that anyone had no moral difficulties. I would assume the opposite.
There are a few reasons. The first of which is that the Church has shown endorsement of slavery in the past. The Council of Gangra (which was made law by the Ecumenical Council of Chalcedon), Dum Diversas, Sicut Dudum, Creator Omnium, Regimini Gregis, the 4th Council of Toledo all endorsed the practice. Yes, there were those in the Church that spoke out against slavery, but to say I’m wrong that some people in the Church were for slavery you would have to show that everyone was against it. That is simply not the case.

Second, when In Supremo was released which decried “unjust” slavery there were those in the U.S, Church who said this was only a call to stop the slave trade and not the continued owning and breeding of slaves.

Third, the law of averages says that if there is a population and that population has a different of opinion on a certain matter, then a sizable subset of the population will also contain people who fall on either side of that matter. Look what’s going on in the Church today with something like whether remarried people should be allowed to receive communion. People working in the Church are not in lockstep on that matter, and this was probably true with slavery at the time.
 
God the Father gave instructions on obtaining and (mis)treating slaves.
God the Son would have the same position as God the Father.

If you disagree with the second premise, then that is Marcionism, which is… heresy.
 
Thank you for your answer, but that’s not what I’m suggesting. What I’m saying is that the Bible is hardly an instruction manual and isn’t meant to be read as such. When one takes verses found in any of the books of the Bible that support violent or barbaric ways and then said person uses this to demonstrate why the Scriptures are seemingly incoherent, contradictory etc to the Christian Faith (and more specifically, our one Holy Faith), then one seems to have missed the entire point of the Scriptures and their purpose. If it is an instruction manual, it’s a very incomplete one for sure.
So the speech God gives to his people starting at Exodus 20 is not a set of instructions? The speech that starts with the 10 Commandments? The one that is all tort, telling people how to behave and what to do?

The whole Bible doesn’t. The OT on its own does.
The NT doesn’t call for the abolition of slavery and urged converts under slavery to endure and seek freedom when the opportunities arise because it was never meant to upend economic and political systems. But also stated:
the sexually immoral, men who practise homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine, in accordance with the gospel of the glory of the blessed God with which I have been entrusted. -1 Tim 1:10-11
Who is speaking in first Timothy? Paul. Who told the Israelites that they could obtain, manslaughter, and blackmail slaves? God. If there is a question as to who Christians are supposed to follow, God or Paul, it has to be God.
 
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Who is speaking in first Timothy? Paul. Who told the Israelites that they could obtain, manslaughter, and blackmail slaves? God. If there is a question as to who Christians are supposed to follow, God or Paul, it has to be God.
Because 1 Timothy isn’t part of the Bible, the Word of God? (Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)
Paul was a servant of God and spoke for Him.
 
Because 1 Timothy isn’t part of the Bible, the Word of God? (Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)
Paul was a servant of God and spoke for Him.
Why did God change? If God was against slavery why did his Church take so gosh darn long to act accordingly?
 
Why did God change? If God was against slavery why did his Church take so gosh darn long to act accordingly?
That’s a good question, which I haven’t put much thought into this subject. For the Early Church, like I said earlier, changing political and economic systems was not the priority.
 
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ATraveller:
Because 1 Timothy isn’t part of the Bible, the Word of God? (Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)
Paul was a servant of God and spoke for Him.
Why did God change? If God was against slavery why did his Church take so gosh darn long to act accordingly?
Cause…people are human beings?
 
That’s a good question, which I haven’t put much thought into this subject. For the Early Church, like I said earlier, changing political and economic systems was not the priority.
We can put aside what other nations were doing at the time since God explicitly says:
Leviticus 18:24
Do not defile yourselves by any of these practices, for by all these things the nations I am driving out before you have defiled themselves.
Leviticus 20:23
You must not follow the statutes of the nations I am driving out before you, for they did all these things, and I abhorred them.
The excuse that we normally see explaining that the Israelites lived in a culture where there was slavery withers under the mildest of scrutiny. Also remember God told his people what to wear, what to eat, how to act with each other. God was the culture. He told them to do things that other cultures didn’t and to not do things other cultures did. There was no excuse for God to tell his people it was ok to enslave others.

As far as not thinking about the subject, I know if someone I admired (and for Christians they also worshipped) said such horrendous things I’d do quite a bit of research to make sense of it all.

With regards to the Church and its endorsement of slavery, I mentioned several Church writings, one of which was the Council of Gangra. In it we’re told “If anyone, on the pretext of godliness, teach a slave to scorn his master, and to leave his service, and not to afford his services to his own master with favor and all honor, let him be anathema.” Yes, people would be removed from the Church for trying to free slaves in this way.
 
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As far as not thinking about the subject, I know if someone I admired (and for Christians they also worshipped) said such horrendous things I’d do quite a bit of research to make sense of it all.
Frankly, there are many things in life to deal with. When I have time, I’ll look at some less pressing ones with more care.
For me, I’m not extremely bothered by the challenging accounts in the OT. I’m a mere mortal, and God is God. Am I going to change His mind? He ushered in a New Covenant, which doesn’t compel us to maintain slavery and that’s good enough for me.
With regards to the Church and its endorsement of slavery, I mentioned several Church writings, one of which was the Council of Gangra. In it we’re told “If anyone, on the pretext of godliness, teach a slave to scorn his master, and to leave his service, and not to afford his services to his own master with favor and all honor, let him be anathema.” Yes, people would be removed from the Church for trying to free slaves in this way.
Is there a point to this? The Church is composed of people. It was unfortunate. They had grounds not to keep the system but chose not too. Gangra was a local council and the Oriental Orthodox Church among others rejected the council (not necessarily on the topic of slavery) according to Wikipedia. Ecumenical councils, let alone local ones, aren’t binding for the whole of Christianity as many Eastern Churches demonstrate and especially with Protestants.
 
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Frankly, there are many things in life to deal with. When I have time, I’ll look at some less pressing ones with more care.
For me, I’m not extremely bothered by the challenging accounts in the OT. I’m a mere mortal, and God is God. Am I going to change His mind? He ushered in a New Covenant, which doesn’t compel us to maintain slavery and that’s good enough for me.
To me a deity that is supposed to be love itself explicitly spells out how to engage in a system of cruelty against others goes beyond just “challenging”. I’m thankful that our history is populated by those where accepting slavery wasn’t good enough for them, and who would not accept it.
Is there a point to this? The Church is composed of people. It was unfortunate. They had grounds not to keep the system but chose not too. Gangra was a local council and the Oriental Orthodox Church among others rejected the council (not necessarily on the topic of slavery) according to Wikipedia. Ecumenical councils, let alone local ones, aren’t binding for the whole of Christianity as many Eastern Churches demonstrate and especially with Protestants.
As I mentioned above, Gangra (and several other early Councils) were considered law by the Fourth Ecumenical Council in Chalcedon.
 
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Mike_from_NJ:
I’m thankful that our history is populated by those where accepting slavery wasn’t good enough for them, and who would not accept it.
Is it really?
Yes, they were called abolitionists. Many of them were Christians who fought against slavery despite what the Bible said about the topic.
 
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