O
oldcatholicguy
Guest
-The sack of Constantinople has what to do with the Church having a mixed response to slavery? Are you implying that the Church’s stance on slavery is somehow based on external threats to it?The fact is that the sack of Constantinople went on for three days. “Four thousand Christians were killed. More than 50,000 others, virtually the entire surviving population, were seized, and all but the few who could pay large ransoms were enslaved.” *The Glory of Christendom *in A History of Christendom, Vol. 3, Dr Warren H Carroll, Christendom Press, 1993, p 568].
The nonsense of calling serfdom and servitude “slavery” is also debunked by Dr Rodney Stark who refers to those historians who claim that “nothing happened other than a linguistic shift in which the word ‘slave’ was replaced by the word ‘serf’ ”, as “playing word games. Serfs were not chattels; they had had rights and a substantial degree of discretion. They married who they wished, and their families were not subject to sale or dispersal. They paid rent and thus controlled their own time and the pace of their work…sets of mutual obligations were the fundamental nature of feudalism.
In the seventh century, “Clovis II, king of the Franks, married his British slave Bathilda (who) used her position to mount a campaign against the slave trade and to redeem those in slavery.” She was declared a saint by the Church.
“Slavery ended in medieval Europe only because the Church extended its sacraments to all slaves and then managed to impose a ban on the enslavement of Christians (and of Jews).
“The theological conclusion that slavery is sinful has been unique to Christianity (although several early Jewish sects also rejected slavery.”
The Victory of Reason, Rodney Stark, Random House, 2005, p 27, 28, 30].
U.S. Economist, Stanford University professor, and Hoover Institute Senior Fellow, African Thomas Sowell, in Black Rednecks & White Liberals, in an essay titled The Real History of Slavery, declares:
“Slavery is almost as old as humanity, and as widespread as the globe. The Islamic world was notorious for its slave trade. Slavs were notoriously slaves. In fact the word “slave” comes from slav. Arabs and North Africans enslaved Europeans, Europeans enslaved other Europeans, Africans enslaved other Africans. Everyone enslaved someone. It was all the rage. While slavery was common to all civilizations, as well as to peoples considered uncivilized, only one civilization developed a moral revulsion against it, very late in its history — Western civilization…”
“The reason? The teaching of the Catholic Church from the beginning came to be believed widely as true.”
-Mr. Sowell’s remarks have what to do with the Church having a mixed response to slavery?
-Dr. Stark- Ah, so as long as someone has rights and aren’t chattel they aren’t slaves. Well I guess that means that the Church has never held that POWs and criminals can be turned into slaves, or it has held that it is moral for POWs and criminals to lose all their rights once they become slaves. Dr. Stark is only correct if we narrowly define the term “slavery” as “chattel slavery.”
-You do understand that your citation of Clovis II supports the view that the Church had a mixed response to slavery right? Balthild was born free, sold into slavery as a child, sold to one of Clovis’s subordinates and given to him as a gift. Now, if as you contend the Church didn’t have a mixed response to slavery, what is the King of a very Catholic kingdom, one of his high level subordinates, and the very Catholic subjects themselves doing buying and selling a girl and using her as a “gift”?
-None of your above actually addresses the statement that the Church had a mixed response to slavery, or that some Popes supported it.
-None of your above addresses my comments about slavery in Anglo-Saxon England in which there existed individuals in slavery outside your three assumed to be correct for the sake of argument categories of POW, criminal, or indentured servant.