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Dodge_pursuit
Guest
Hi.
Today I read in the Catechism where it clearly declares that slavery, the owning of one human person by another, is gravely wrong and an insult to human dignity. I personally agree.
But how does this reconcile with scripture, wherein slavery is accepted and even carefully regulated?
For example:
*“When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do. If she does not please her master, who has designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed."
“When a man strikes his slave, male or female, with a rod and the slave dies under his hand, he shall be avenged. But if the slave survives a day or two, he is not to be avenged, for the slave is his money."
“When a man strikes the eye of his slave, male or female, and destroys it, he shall let the slave go free because of his eye. If he knocks out the tooth of his slave, male or female, he shall let the slave go free because of his tooth."* Exodus 21
And the New Testament is no different:
*“Slaves, obey your earthly masters with respect and fear, and with sincerity of heart, just as you would obey Christ.” Ephesians 6
“Slaves, in reverent fear of God submit yourselves to your masters, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are harsh.”* 1 Peter
I don’t understand. God never said “slavery is wrong,” when he was giving commandments. Some say, “well that was the culture at the time so God allowed it.”
But why didn’t Jesus or the apostles say “Stop owning people,” or words to that effect, if God did not approve of it? They mentioned many less important things, such as eating meats, giving to the collection plate, women speaking in church, speaking in tongues, gossip, etc…
The southern states quoted the bible when defending slavery in the pre civil war United States. Which is correct, the bible or the catechism?
Thanks.
Today I read in the Catechism where it clearly declares that slavery, the owning of one human person by another, is gravely wrong and an insult to human dignity. I personally agree.
But how does this reconcile with scripture, wherein slavery is accepted and even carefully regulated?
For example:
*“When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do. If she does not please her master, who has designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed."
“When a man strikes his slave, male or female, with a rod and the slave dies under his hand, he shall be avenged. But if the slave survives a day or two, he is not to be avenged, for the slave is his money."
“When a man strikes the eye of his slave, male or female, and destroys it, he shall let the slave go free because of his eye. If he knocks out the tooth of his slave, male or female, he shall let the slave go free because of his tooth."* Exodus 21
And the New Testament is no different:
*“Slaves, obey your earthly masters with respect and fear, and with sincerity of heart, just as you would obey Christ.” Ephesians 6
“Slaves, in reverent fear of God submit yourselves to your masters, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are harsh.”* 1 Peter
I don’t understand. God never said “slavery is wrong,” when he was giving commandments. Some say, “well that was the culture at the time so God allowed it.”
But why didn’t Jesus or the apostles say “Stop owning people,” or words to that effect, if God did not approve of it? They mentioned many less important things, such as eating meats, giving to the collection plate, women speaking in church, speaking in tongues, gossip, etc…
The southern states quoted the bible when defending slavery in the pre civil war United States. Which is correct, the bible or the catechism?
Thanks.