Well that is closer to my understanding.
Therefore Catholicism and Orthodoxy are mutually exclusive. Both can not be 100% true, correct.
Where they differ, one must err correct.
Therefore is it not true that any line of reasoning here that not uniquely identify one versus the other is fallacious?
Not sure where you are going with this to be honest. I was responding to your question of both the Orthodox and Catholics claiming direct lineage to Christ,
Anyway, if I am understanding you correctly I assume it took historical understanding to separate the two.
It took a series of cultural issues and different understandings that led to the mutual claims.
Would not the Orthodox have a different interpretation of history ot (they presumably would not listen to your reasoning and go “duh why did we miss this all along”). I would also suspect it would be a cumbersome task for someone who is neither Orthodox or Catholic and does not have the skill set of a seminary degree with a strong church history background to sift through the various historical arguments and objectively analyze them. But anyway…
The Orthodox would have a different understanding of history of course, but then so would the Moslems, the Protestants and others for that matter. Sincerity of belief does not mean correctness.
Since there is no cause for saying Christ abandoned the Church He founded, it follows that those who would have broken from it did so wrongly, even if they did so sincerely.
The problem with the Orthodox claim is that the Patriarchate of Constantinople was not an ancient See as was Rome, Antioch and Alexandria. It was formed with the growth of influence of the political nature as it was made the new capitol. The Patristic documents show that their reasoning was along the lines of saying that because Rome was the old capitol and Constantinople was the new capitol, the Patriarch of Constantinople should have commensurate authority with Rome. (The first Patriarch of Constantinople was Anatolius and his Bishopric was elevated to a Patriarchate in AD 451, though the Orthodox do say the Bishopric of Byzantium was established by Andrew the Apostle)
The fallacy here is that it links the Church authority to the temporal power of the place. However, historical documents demonstrate that Rome’s influence was always understood as being linked to Peter.
As I view history, it seems that the tensions with Constantinople were based on the political basis of the claims the Patriarchate of Constantinople made.
The Orthodox will doubtless disagree with my assessment, but when they appeal to the authority of the Ecumenical Council over all, they are referring to something that had its first basis in AD 325 in reaction to Arianism. If the Ecumenical Council was to be the ultimate authority, it brings up the question where the authority of the Church was prior to AD 325.
Is it correct to say this is a historical judgement call that you made to separate the two?
I don’t think it was a judgment call. Rather I do not see how the Orthodox can claim to be the authentic Church in a way that excludes Rome based on history.
Catholics do indeed recognize the fact that the Orthodox Churches have authentic sacraments and orders, and what is sought is to restore the broken communion between them