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Nicea325
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By the same token, there is no verse that reads, ‘You shall not baptize children; you may only baptize those who profess faith in Jesus Christ’—there is no explicit verse forbidding the baptism of children. However,what is missing is overwhelming evidence to support ‘believer’s baptism’ to the exclusion of infant baptism.All throughout Scripture baptism is connected to repentance and faith. Scriptural baptism is always accompanied by repentance and faith. So, yes, the New Testament makes the ability to repent and have faith crucial to baptism.
Are you sure without a shred of doubt about the term household? Scripture relentlessly speaks of God as dealing with households by virtue of his dealing with the head of that household. This is true for the Old Testament as well as the New.It is based on what Scripture says about baptism, that repentance and faith are crucial elements to it. It is based on the fact that no where is infant baptism mentioned, and the fact that while many Christians claim “household” refers to infant baptism that is not conclusive one way or another.
Genesis 7:1 "Then the LORD said to Noah, “Come into the ark, you and all your household, because I have seen that you are righteous before Me in this generation.” (Note in this instance that the word “you” is singular, referring to Noah only. Yet, by virtue of Noah’s righteousness, his whole family is taken into the ark. Peter compares this event to Baptism in 1 Peter 3:20,21)
And just as significant are those passages that mention the household but explicitly exclude children:
Genesis 50:7-8 “So Joseph went up to bury his father; and with him went up all the servants of Pharaoh, the elders of his house, and all the elders of the land of Egypt, as well as all the house of Joseph, his brothers, and his father’s house. Only their little ones, their flocks, and their herds they left in the land of Goshen.”
1 Samuel 1:21,22 “Now the man Elkanah and all his house went up to offer to the LORD the yearly sacrifice and his vow. But Hannah did not go up, for she said to her husband, ‘Not until the child is weaned; then I will take him, that he may appear before the LORD and remain there forever.’”
The exceptions prove the rule. In both of the above cases, when the biblical writer mentions the entire household, he feels the need to point out in this case that the children are not included. He would not point this out unless the term “house” presumed otherwise.
Yes…it was a bad comparison. Sorry, but care to answer? Would you deny an infant or young child a bath because he or she is not ready to believe what it does for us? So once they understand and believe the purpose of baths, you give him or her a bath?It’s not a bad comparison. You’re making a comparison about baptism. I’m making a comparison about the way “household” applies to infants.
No? But why? Why not deny a child a bath…does a 8 month old know what it is the purpose?No. I believe people should not be baptized until, according to Scripture, they repent and have faith.
Okay, then with what certitude do you have they NEVER were at any point in time during the NT church or post-Apostolic times? What conclusive evidence do you hold which absolutely makes your position a confirmed fact?And nowhere in Scripture is it stated that infants were baptized. Everything in Scripture points to believer’s baptism. Interpreting “household” to mean infants were baptized is not a strong enough basis on which to ignore those points.
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Originally Posted by Nicea325
As for Tertullian? Tertullian was not Protestant
There is no and! Fact of the matter is that Protestants always try to use such a tactic. Trying to present some sort of smoking gun that the church father was somehow NOT Catholic. Tertullian was one man and not the voice of the entire church. No different than Jerome who submitted his will to the church,unlike reformers who carried on with their own agendas.And??? Does someone have to be Protestant to be right? Why didn’t you just tell me that earlier.