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Ys, I know that interpretation and all that went before it, Yet it is hard to swallow, even given the allowances, that His “bithday” has a possible span of 49 years with a twelove year gap. Tell me, if you were so close as the authors allegedly were, then would you be capable of such error? And I’m questioning it because if indeed the conditions of “inspiration” were as you say and such blatant differences occur, how did they not occur otherwise, in other reprtage about Jesus? You are going to take the say so of dubiously qualified men with an agenda three hundred years later? That is an oversimplification, but if you are as competent as you seem to be about Biblical intetion, you also know of some of the skelatons in our closet. Or maybe you don’t consider, or rationalize those as well?You seem to be making an important point, but in fact you are not.
(1) When the Holy Spirit inspired the Bible’s redactors, He did not force them to speak with perfect historical accuracy. Muddled things remained muddled. Inspiration has a different effect. See point (3) below.
(2) Sometimes, facts seem to have been twisted on purpose, to teach something other than correct facts. For example, Matthew probably tampered with the number of generations in Jesus’ genealogy in Matthew 1, so that he came up with three sets of 14, probably because he was talking to us with numbers. 7 symbolizes perfection; 2 symbolizes the church; so, 14, which is the product of 7 x 2, tells us that the folks in Jesus’ genealogy brought us the perfection of the church, by bringing us Jesus.
(3) The standard of historical accuracy to which you implicitly hold the Bible did not even exist when the Bible books were written. For example, the older scrolls of Luke’s gospel include indications that Luke’s intent in Luke 24:50-53 was to portray Jesus as having ascended to heaven ON THE NIGHT OF THE DAY OF HIS RESURRECTION.
Yet, in the Acts of the Apostles, which appears to be a mere continuation of the gospel by the writer of Luke’s gospel, written TO the same man, Jesus ascends to heaven 40 DAYS AFTER!
Note well that LUKE COULDN’T CARE LESS ABOUT PERFECT HISTORICAL ACCURACY. He just changed the facts blithely, probably to teach a different theology lesson.
But, there are still amazing things within these “handicapped” works.
For example, in the Nativity accounts which you question, Jesus was wrapped in swaddling clothes and laid in a manger – a feeding trough – in Bethlehem.
Why?
The doctrine of the Real Presence in the Eucharist is being anticipated there: You see the body of Jesus wrapped-up like a cadaver being served as food on a kind of “dinner plate.”
Where? In Bethlehem, which means “house of bread.” We have a picture of Jesus’ actual dead body being served as food in the House of Bread, because His actual dead boidy will be in the form of bread.
The OP may wish to look at this subject from the standpoint of the Jewish faith and tradition. The overwhelming approach within Judaism has been one of reverence for the word of God, to start off with, accepting that it is true. Then, the next general approach has been one of harmonization, to study how to harmonize the texts.
The book I mention above takes the approach that God has given us parallel texts, for example, to stimulate us to think about them more deeply.
…
I, too, can place myself outside of scripture and question it. Thank God I have faith and study it from the inside, from the standpoint of a person of faith. The Bible makes a lot more sense if you read it with faith, from the get-go.
Pretty simple. Jesus spoke Aramaic. Maybe He spoke other languages as well, since He had been in Egypt and possibly to India. The Gosples were written mostly in Greek and some in Aramaic as far as we can tell. We have no originals. Those that were availble eventually made it into Latin, and the whole bunch into English at some time. Perhaps you know a foreign language and understand from expereince that really, you can’t say the same thing in two languages. “Idem non idem.” That is why translators sometimes are called liars. Then we have the problem of differents states of awareness of Jesus, the “recorders,” who Jesus was talking* to*, the understanding of language–His and theirs–of the translators, their understanding of the ideas of what they were “translating,” etc, etc, etc. You get the picture.The problem I see with contradictions in the Bible is that so many people, including Catholics base many of their beliefs on the words in the Bible to the point that they examine each word. How many debates and explanations have we seen on these boards explaining each word in a verse of the Bible. If there are contradictions especially in the gospels which are supposed to be inspired by the Holy Spirit how can we put so much emphasis on the words in the Bible?
The kind of certainty the many religious people feel, catholics included, is an illusion. The gospels were written between 40 and 70 years after Jesus was murdered, by anonymous authors. The authors were not eyewitnesses to the events (the apostles probably couldn’t read and certainly couldn’t write). There are many discrepancies in the gospels, many of which exist because of theological differences between different schools of thought in early christianity, and layer upon layer of oral traditions.The problem I see with contradictions in the Bible is that so many people, including Catholics base many of their beliefs on the words in the Bible to the point that they examine each word. How many debates and explanations have we seen on these boards explaining each word in a verse of the Bible. If there are contradictions especially in the gospels which are supposed to be inspired by the Holy Spirit how can we put so much emphasis on the words in the Bible?
All this is very well said, Veedar. And none of it need compromise faith as such. But as you imply, it is good and useful toward the desired outcome to be consciously aware of what you are doing and why. I appreciate your contribution.The kind of certainty the many religious people feel, catholics included, is an illusion. The gospels were written between 40 and 70 years after Jesus was murdered, by anonymous authors. The authors were not eyewitnesses to the events (the apostles probably couldn’t read and certainly couldn’t write)…Was God really blessing David in in killing 200 Philistines and bringing their foreskins to Saul? (I remember sitting at mass, listening to this text from 1 Samuel 18 read aloud, and hearing the priest say “This is the word of the Lord” and the people, I hope unconsciously, answering “Thanks be to God”).
Etc… Etc… Taking the time to read the bible and asking questions can be a very enlightening experience. I think it is impossible to both take it seriously and claim it is the inerrant word of God. It is the words of men about God, sometimes really inspired, but at other times reflecting the worst of human tendencies.
OH—And welcome to the forums!
I do not think there are contradictions in the Bible, only your own misunderstanding of a verse. Can you say what you think are contradictions?Hello everyone,
Im worried tonight.
The past months of bible studying has really made me question the bible a lot.
I have some concerns that I will list here. I hope we can have a good discussion on this post about any of these points.
Im worried that the bible might not be from God or has been changed from the original text… I’m also worried because we are supposed to follow traditions handed down in the church but I don’t feel I can trust much of anything that comes from the vatican.
Im sure there are good people there but also a lot of crooked people - also many crooked people in the church’s history as well so you can see why I have trouble trusting these people.
My beliefs at the moment: I believe there is a God, but maybe we’re being tested in some way. Maybe we’re really not supposed to know anything about him or our purpose in life. I’m not going to mass much anymore because of my mental health at the moment which isn’t too great but also my concerns about the church. It’s making it harder for me to want to have anything to do with mass.
But anyways here are my concerns list:
Also verses where it says God sometimes decieves worries me.
- there are a lot of contradictions in the bible. Yes, some contradictions people list can be explained away, but A LOT can’t be explained away at all. There’s no way around many of them because they really are just straight contradictions.
- also things like the “kill homosexuals” thing in the old testament confuses me. I thought God doesn’t want us to murder but in the old testament you’re supposed too? I’ve seen a verse that says God always stays and thinks the same.
I know that’s a lot. I know you may not want to respond to every single point I said, but even just one would be great.
- Also anything anyone wants to say about why we should trust the vatican. The catholic church put the bible together - what if they changed, added, or deleted things in it to suit what they wanted the church to be?
Thank you in advance to anyone who responds.
You are kidding, right?I do not think there are contradictions in the Bible, only your own misunderstanding of a verse. Can you say what you think are contradictions?
No. What do you think are contradictions?You are kidding, right?![]()
No. What do you think are contradictions?
One example: Matthew 27 and Acts 1. The death of Judas.No. What do you think are contradictions?
I do not click on atheist websites because I am not contributing to their view count. If you think there are any contradictions then put them here or I recommend looking at:To stop this pretending that they don’t exist, here is a link infidels.org/library/modern/jim_meritt/bible-contradictions.html
Nobody should be bothered by them though, since the bible never claims to be an exact history manual. It’s natural for different witnesses to remember events differently.
When you use the bible as the inspired word of God, to help you grow and live a Christ like life, it does it’s job well (contradictions be damned)
ps. it also doesn’t claime to be a science manual
This is a perfect example of a claim of contradiction when it is a misunderstanding. It is not a contradiction to describe two things that happened. Acts 1:18 describes what happened after Judas hanged himself in Matthew 27:5. Definition of a ‘contradiction’ means that one statement makes another statement untrue but both are said to be true. Acts 1:18 and Matthew 27:5 are not in contradiction.One example: Matthew 27 and Acts 1. The death of Judas.
According to Matthew:
According to Acts,
- Judas felt remorse
- He threw the pieces of silver into the temple
- he hanged himself
- The pharisees took the blood money and bought a field.
- “That is why it has been called the Field of Blood to this day.”
(There is another version of Judas death in a Papias fragment, where Judas is swollen and is run over by a wagon and his intestines spill out).
- Judas kept his money (implied)
- He bought a field for the blood money.
- Judas fell headlong, his body burst open and all his intestines spilled out.
- “Everyone in Jerusalem heard about this, so they called that field in their language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood”
Perhaps you want to play a game of mental gymnastics and “reconcile” the two accounts by creating a “gospel according to Abyssinia” where Judas first hangs himself, the rope breaks, wind turns him upside down so he falls headlong, Judas buying the field really means the pharisees did it on his behalf with his money (even though he first threw it away) etc… If so, you have made a new version of the story, without a shred of evidence, unheard of by matthew, luke or the early church, to convince yourself that the two accounts are not contradictory.
I submit that to any rational individual without a pre-commitment to a very narrow idea of inspiration, it is obvious that these are two different traditions of the death of Judas, that they are contradictory in a number of ways, and that we simply do not know what happened to him. Both accounts contain some information about a field of blood, and Judas dying an unnatural death, so perhaps they get this information from an older source, closer to the event.
Clearly, Judas hanged himself. What happened to his body after this? What NORMALLY would happen to the body of a person who had hanged himself in isolation, in a society which considered death by hanging from a tree to be a curse and greatly ignoble (see Deuteronomy 21:23)? Judas hanged himself on Friday. His body hung from the tree and began to decay. His body would have hung on the tree all day Saturday as well, as this was the Sabbath, and no self-respecting Jew would remove the cursed body of a dead man from a tree on the Sabbath. Thus, his body was hanging for at least two days, if not more, in the hot and humid climate of Palestine in the late spring *. When a body is dead and begins to decay, internal pressure builds up from gas which is generated by anaerobic decay, which begins to swell the abdomen (as this is the softest part of the body, being that it is unprotected and not encased by the skeletal structure). If the rope or the branch broke from which Judas was hanging, his body would fall headlong, and would certainly split open like a ripe melon, right at his abdomen, causing what was left of his internals to spew out, just as is described happening to him. This would be because of the pressure built up from the internal gas caused by decay. If he had been hanging long enough, he may even have popped like a balloon.
studytoanswer.net/consref/judas_suicide.htmlThus, there is a perfectly logical, and in fact probable, explanation for why Judas could both hang himself, and also be described as having fallen headlong and burst open in his middle. The supposition that these two passages contradict each other is based more on the desire of the sceptic for it to be so, than on any actual contradiction which is presented in the written Word of God. Remember, a contradiction is when two written or spoken testimonies say things which cancel out the validity of one another, which is most certainly not the case with these two passages. Instead, in Matthew 27:5 and Acts 1:18, we see two different parts of the same overall story laid out in a complementary fashion concerning the ignoble demise of the traitor Judas.
More information:“By comparison with the account in Matthew 27:3-8, it is evident that Judas “purchased” this field only indirectly. He threw down his blood money (the thirty pieces of silver paid him for betraying Jesus) in front of the chief priests, who used it to buy the field called Aceldama (Acts 1:19), or “the field of blood” (Matthew 27:8). He then hanged himself, apparently in the same field, but bungled the attempt, actually dying as escribed in this verse.” source: (“The Defenders Study Bible”, pg 1177)
I certainly understand the difficulties and issues with translation from other languages. That is really the point of my post. People will get into debates based on a singulart word in the bible. Seems very silly and illogical to debate a particular word when we don’t know if the word has changed from one translation or copy made.Pretty simple. Jesus spoke Aramaic. Maybe He spoke other languages as well, since He had been in Egypt and possibly to India. The Gosples were written mostly in Greek and some in Aramaic as far as we can tell. We have no originals. Those that were availble eventually made it into Latin, and the whole bunch into English at some time. Perhaps you know a foreign language and understand from expereince that really, you can’t say the same thing in two languages. “Idem non idem.” That is why translators sometimes are called liars. Then we have the problem of differents states of awareness of Jesus, the “recorders,” who Jesus was talking* to*, the understanding of language–His and theirs–of the translators, their understanding of the ideas of what they were “translating,” etc, etc, etc. You get the picture.
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