V
Vico
Guest
Here is something to read on that topic.Could you please provide a citation for this? Yes, canonically a man must be able to engage in physical intercourse, but what Church document states he must also produce sperm? Sterility is not an impediment. If a man is able to be one with his wife, but, through no fault of his own, nothing is ejaculated, is this actually grounds for an annulment?
The decree means that it is the current teaching of the Church that the doubly vasectomized male is capable of a marriage act provided erection, penetration, and the ejaculation of secretions from the prostate, seminal vesicles and various other glands is possible; that the grossly normal ejaculate is sufficient to fulfil the canonical concept of “true semen” and to achieve that *kind *of an act which otherwise would be generative, even though in this case the ejaculate is sterile and contains nothing elaborated in the testicles.
ewtn.com/library/Doctrine/IMPOSTER.HTM