T
Touchstone
Guest
I’m thinking of Romans 1, where Paul says:We know that our will is sufficiently free to subject us to judgment because God has told us so, as recorded in scripture.
If the events that are recorded in scripture had never occurred, I do not think we would be able to infer that we would be judged by God for our acts. St. Paul explains in Romans why the knowledge of God is attributable to all men, but he does not suggest that the knowledge exists in a vacuum. It exists in light of revelation,which is how St. Paul knew what he knew and passed on in Romans.
(my emphasis)For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse.
That last bit suggests not just knowledge of God, but universal conviction, doesn’t it? Per Paul, this understanding by all men is not grounded in the conviction of the Law, or the history of God interacting with man as recorded in scripture, but in God’s “invisible attributes” and his immanence, manifesting his divine nature.
I think that fits with your pointing to revelation, but isn’t Paul pointing to God’s immanence as the revelation that leaves all without excuse, rather than the shenanigans recorded in scripture, at least in Rom 1:20?
-TS