They serve the public unequally. Why should people who live in dense cities be forced to pay for paving rural highways that they have no intention of using? Is this not theft? Money is taken from one group of people for the benefit of another group of people. And why do you confine your criticism to just Federal taxes for roads? Why isn’t state tax for roads on your radar too? The people in a single state can be very diverse in what they need and want.
This is a different criteria than the first one you mentioned. You somewhat supported state taxes for roads on the grounds that it serves the general public. The implication is that taxes that serve the general public is not theft while taxes that do not serve the general public is theft. But when it comes to analyzing federal taxes for roads, the issue of serving the general public is not even mentioned. Instead you rest your case on whether or not the tax is authorized by the Constitution. It looks to me like you are picking whatever criteria happens to best agree with your personal approval of the tax. A criterion for deciding if a tax is theft should be an unchanging criterion. So which is it? Can you state the criteria without relying on any examples?
Both you and Edwin have indicated that I was using “circular reasoning”.
What I am seeing here is a problem with “reading comprehension”.
If you go back over my post you will see that I **do ** say that …people who live in dense cities and are forced to pay for paving rural highways that they have no intention of using Is theft. It does fall under the heading of money taken from one group of people for the benefit of another group of people.
I criticize Federal spending on roads because the federal government has no authority to spend tax money on roads.
People have more control over state and local governments. Politicians tend to be more careful with local funds as opposed to hugh federal grants that seem to be spent on everything other than highway projects.
But, again, if the taxes (local or federal) are not used for programs that serve the general public EQUALLY and/or programs that are not a function of government…that is theft.
How about people who do not have any children? Should they also be allowed to deduct the tax? And should people with more children pay more tax? Otherwise the local government is taking from some people and giving to others. Theft, according to you?
Yes, Leaf that would obviously be theft.
A childless millionaire living in a $5 million mansion could provide 5 kids with a solid Catholic education on what he could deduct from the portion of his taxes that goes to government schools. I hope I don’t have go into the educational benefits of private vs. government education…
If nothing is authorized without being specifically mentioned in a State or Federal Constitution, what is the purpose of having a legislature? You don’t recognize anything authorized by legislature, right? I have asked you several times if you think a legislature (state or federal) has the authority to authorize a tax.
The purpose of a legislature is to protect individual rights and provide such public services as authorized by the Constitution.
You ask if I think a legislature (state or federal) has the authority to authorize a tax.
Like I said before, when I quoted the Constitution granting congress the power to levy taxes (remember?)…yes, when the tax serves the general public EQUALLY and is within the limitations of the legislature as stated in the Constitution.
Even if we take this to be strictly true, that does not answer the question of whether state taxes not authorized by a state constitution are theft.
A tax not authorized by a state constitution is not legal. Therefore…theft.
This is fine if you and I never share anything - like a road, or a park, or a military. But if we do share something, we both have an overlapping duty to share in the support of that something.
That’s not a very good answer. You chose to neglect a very important part.
…how much of what I earn is yours and why?