Sodom-Gomorrah----99.9% Gay. Proves socially learned/acquired sin

  • Thread starter Thread starter brb3
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Dear adrift,

Cordial greetings and a very good day. Hope all is well. Perhaps I can be of some help.
I agree with everything you have stated. When I asked for Scripture, I was referring to Genesis telling of the story of Sodom-Gomorrah. It only speaks of the sin being grievous but does not name what the sin is.

As I have mentioned, and you have also pointed out, other Scriptures do name the sin. As you pointed out, Jude mentions they indulged in sexual promiscuity and practiced unnatural vice . But you can’t just take one verse according to Isaiah ( Isaiah 1:9-10; 3:9), it was a lack of social justice; Ezekiel (Ezekiel 16:46-51) described it as a disregard for the poor, whereas Jeremiah (Jeremiah 23:14) saw it as general immorality.

So you have a variety of reasons. It still remains however, that Genesis does not state the reason. What I was asking for was scripture in Genesis that states the sin.
 
It’s important to recognize that the ancient world didn’t have an understanding of sexual orientation. Although there is no doubt that homosexual acts are sinful, it’s equally important to recognize that the sin of Sodom & Gommorah was inhospitality.
Say what? God destroyed two cities because Lot wouldn’t invite the crowd in for dinner??? You can not find a single biblical scholar in the last 2,000 years makes that claim unitl the last 40 years or so when people started trying to normalize homosexual behavior.
 
I agree with everything you have stated. When I asked for Scripture, I was referring to Genesis telling of the story of Sodom-Gomorrah. It only speaks of the sin being grievous but does not name what the sin is.

As I have mentioned, and you have also pointed out, other Scriptures do name the sin. As you pointed out, Jude mentions they indulged in sexual promiscuity and practiced unnatural vice . But you can’t just take one verse according to Isaiah ( Isaiah 1:9-10; 3:9), it was a lack of social justice; Ezekiel (Ezekiel 16:46-51) described it as a disregard for the poor, whereas Jeremiah (Jeremiah 23:14) saw it as general immorality.

So you have a variety of reasons. It still remains however, that Genesis does not state the reason. What I was asking for was scripture in Genesis that states the sin.
Dear adrift,

Cordial greetings and hello again. My apologies for the misunderstanding but allow me to make a some observations.

First, dear friend, the Genesis narrative makes it clear that “the men of Sodom were wicked and sinners before the Lord exceedingly” (13: 13), and that “the cry of Sodom and Gomorrah is great…because their sin is very grevious”, which led to God being determined to investigate it (18: 20,21), and at length “overthrow those cities, and all the plain, and all the inhabitants of the cities” (19: 25) by and act of judgment which was entirely consistent with the justice of “the judge of all the earth” (18: 25). Now whilst it is quite true that the Genesis narrative does not explicitly state what the sin was that merited the obliteration, there are, notwithstanding, strong and compelling reasons for concluding from the narrative that it was homosexual deviant practices.

Lot received the angelic visitors into his house and at evening the men of the city surrounded his home and demanded to see his guests - “And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, where are the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them” (Gen. 19: 5). Now it has been argued (Sherwin Bailey) that this demand to “know” the strangers was nothing more than a desire to get better acquainted with them; it was no more than a matter of a breach of hospitality. It was noted by Mr. Bailey that the word yada (“know”) appears some 934 times in the O.T. and on only 12 occasions does it clearly denote “to have carnal relations with”; elsewhere it means “to get acquainted with” or "to have knowledge of ". However, Mr. Bailey’s case is not convincing for a number of reasons. The words of Lot to the men of Sodom, “I pray you, brethren, do not so wickedly” (Gen 19: 7), hardly seem appropriate to describe a mere violation of the laws of hospitality. Moreover, does not the offer of women clearly imply that there is some sexual connotation to the episode? Whilst it is true that the verb yada is used only ten times of carnal copulation, Mr. Bailey omits to mention that six of these occurences are in Genesis and one in the Sodom narrative itself (about Lot’s daughters who had not ‘known’ a man, Gen. 19: 8).

It it is quite true, dear friend, that the rest of the O.T. nowhere suggests that the nature of Sodom’s offence was homosexual acts of depravity. Instead, Isaiah implies that it was hypocrisy and, as you state, social injustice, Jermiah adultery, deceit and general wickedness and Ezekiel arrogance, avarice and indifference to the poor. However, it should be noted that the Ezekiel passage (16: 49-50) describes the conduct of the men of Sodom as an “abomination” - the same word that is used of homosexual sin in the Book of Leviticus (18: 22). Moreover, the passage in St. Jude which speaks of the inhabitants of Sodom and Gomorrah giving themselves up to sexual immorality and unnatural vice (v. 7) is quite unequivocal per se and provides an inspired commentary upon the Genesis narrative which cannot easily be dismissed. To be sure, homosexual behaviour was not Sodom’s only sin, but according to St. Jude it was certainly one of them.

Finally, dear friend, as bad as social injustice, greed and indifference to the poor are, it is hard to believe that any or all of them would warrant the complete obliteration of Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding cities. However, homosexual vice - a vice against which even nature herself protests - would certainly qualify as an “outcry” and a “very grevious” sin (Gen. 18: 20). Indeed, we know from Leviticus that this nefarious sin is an “abomination” in the sight of God and one which defiled men and the very land in which they dwelt (see Lev. 18: 22, 24, 25). Therefore, this would explain why the inhabitants of Sodom and Gommorah had to be visited with such a dreadful and fearful punishment and why they could not be permitted to remain. For such a henious sin against nature God had to punish them most severely so that they could be “set forth for an example, suffering the vengenace of eternal fire” (St. Jude 7).

God bless.

Warmest good wishes,

Portrait

Pax
 
It was one sin they were guilty of.
Dakota,

The reference is what the Catechism uses to formulate their position. You are suggesting that other sins are relevant and they may be. Does the Catechism quote sodom and gomorrah anywhere else for any other sin as you suggest?
 
Grace & Peace!

B–We must also assume that the strangers in Sodom found all the men of Sodom (young and old) sexually attractive (or were capable of finding them so) and were also homosexual. There is no evidence for this assumption. But it must be made in order to satisfy the catechism’s criteria of what constitutes homosexuality and thus what constitutes a homosexual act (see 1, 2 and 3 above).

Now, Coptic, this exegesis of the catechism and its relation to Genesis 19 is absurd. But it certainly doesn’t go against the *letter of the catechism when it comes to it’s definition of homosexuality and homosexual acts. Likewise, interpreting the mere presence of a footnote to be indicative of a dogmatic definition of a single “correct” interpretation of a passage of scripture is absurd, even if it agrees with the letter *of the catechism, though not with reason.

You damage the credibility of the catechism, the credibility of scripture and the credibility of the faith when you insist on reading dogmatic definitions into things where such definitions are lacking or even inappropriate and which may prove a skandalon to other believers, those weak in faith, or those curious about the faith. Similarly, you do no one a favor when you insist on the singular orthodoxy of a narrowly constructed reading when it is clear that other readings (such as that of Ezekiel mentioned earlier in this thread) are at least as authoritative and traditional as those you wish to promote.

The issue here is not which interpretation of scripture is a priori and dogmatically “right” or “wrong” on the basis of a footnote–the issue is: how do we interpret the scripture in a way that authentically takes into consideration and is faithful to: the intentions of scripture; the guidance of tradition; the needs of our community in our time (i.e. we must ask not only what is scripture saying, but to whom–you wouldn’t tell a starving person that “man shall not live by bread alone” and then send him on his way); and the objectively definitive revelation of God in Jesus Christ.

Having addressed these issues, the next important question we should then ask is *not *whether the interpretation is right or wrong, but: “How does it impinge upon my prayer, which is or ought to be my life?” If the interpretation leads to the spread of the Gospel, the building up of the Church of Christ and the equipping of the saints for ministry, then great! We’re on the right track! If not…then we need to try again.

Under the Mercy,
Mark

All is Grace and Mercy! Deo Gratias!
Mark,

The footnote is to the compendium of the Catechism, the basis for the reasons for the declaration…
2357 Homosexuality refers to relations between men or between women who experience an exclusive or predominant sexual attraction toward persons of the same sex. It has taken a great variety of forms through the centuries and in different cultures. Its psychological genesis remains largely unexplained. Basing itself on Sacred Scripture, which presents homosexual acts as acts of grave depravity,141 tradition has always declared that "homosexual acts are intrinsically disordered."142 They are contrary to the natural law. They close the sexual act to the gift of life. They do not proceed from a genuine affective and sexual complementarity. Under no circumstances can they be approved.
2358 The number of men and women who have deep-seated homosexual tendencies is not negligible. This inclination, which is objectively disordered, constitutes for most of them a trial. They must be accepted with respect, compassion, and sensitivity. Every sign of unjust discrimination in their regard should be avoided. These persons are called to fulfill God’s will in their lives and, if they are Christians, to unite to the sacrifice of the Lord’s Cross the difficulties they may encounter from their condition.
2359 Homosexual persons are called to chastity. By the virtues of self-mastery that teach them inner freedom, at times by the support of disinterested friendship, by prayer and sacramental grace, they can and should gradually and resolutely approach Christian perfection.
141 Cf. Gen 191-29; Rom 124-27; 1 Cor 6:10; 1 Tim 1:10.
142 CDF, Persona humana 8.

vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_19751229_persona-humana_en.html
For according to the objective moral order, homosexual relations are acts which lack an essential and indispensable finality. In Sacred Scripture they are condemned as a serious depravity and even presented as the sad consequence of rejecting God.[18] This judgment of Scripture does not of course permit us to conclude that all those who suffer from this anomaly are personally responsible for it, but it does attest to the fact that homosexual acts are intrinsically disordered and can in no case be approved of.
and the reference given in this document is as follows.
  1. Rom 1:24-27 “That is why God left them to their filthy enjoyments and the practices with which they dishonor their own bodies since they have given up Divine truth for a lie and have worshipped and served creatures instead of the Creator, Who is blessed forever. Amen! That is why God has abandoned them to degrading passions; why their women have turned from natural intercourse to unnatural practices and why their menfolk have given up natural intercourse to be consumed with passion for each other, men doing shameless things with men and getting an appropriate reward for their perversion” See also what St. Paul says of “masculorum concubitores” in I Cor 6:10; I Tim 1:10.
This is not exegesis. Sodomy, fellatio, mutual masturbation, unholy unions of people of the same sex are sin…pretty clear…I did not make it up or do an exegesis…
 
Dakota,

The reference is what the Catechism uses to formulate their position. You are suggesting that other sins are relevant and they may be. Does the Catechism quote sodom and gomorrah anywhere else for any other sin as you suggest?
The Bible does.

Catholics aren’t Catechism alone.
 
Mark,

This is not exegesis. Sodomy, fellatio, mutual masturbation, unholy unions of people of the same sex are sin…pretty clear…I did not make it up or do an exegesis…
fellatio and mutual masturb … are sins ? Catholic citation on this please.

Many here are teaching they both are OK. … saying the Church ignores, doesn’t address them, thus by default are OK.
 
fellatio and mutual masturb … are sins ? Catholic citation on this please.

Many here are teaching they both are OK. … saying the Church ignores, doesn’t address them, thus by default are OK.
Brb,
Sodomy, fellatio, mutual masturbation, unholy unions of people of the same sex are sin…
tradition has always declared that "homosexual acts are intrinsically disordered."
Felation with people of the same sex
Sodomy with people of the same sex
Mutual masturbation with people of the same sex
unholy unions of people of the same sex

Am I to understand that you do not see these as sins against chastity with the understanding that all these are in the context in the sentence concerning people of the same sex?

Please tell me you need no explanation for this.
 
Brb,

Felation with people of the same sex
Sodomy with people of the same sex
Mutual masturbation with people of the same sex

unholy unions of people of the same sex

Am I to understand that you do not see these as sins against chastity with the understanding that all these are in the context in the sentence concerning people of the same sex?

Please tell me you need no explanation for this.
Sodomy is a term that refers to all inherently sterile acts and applies to sex between two men, two women and also man & woman.
 
Sodomy is a term that refers to all inherently sterile acts and applies to sex between two men, two women and also man & woman.
DR,

This is thoughtful of you to clarify and add this piece of information. The thread is about Sodom-Gomorrah, in the context of same sex relations and I posted information about sodomy between those of the same sex.
Sodomy, fellatio, mutual masturbation, unholy unions of people of the same sex are sin…
tradition has always declared that “homosexual acts are intrinsically disordered.”
Felation with people of the same sex
Sodomy with people of the same sex
Mutual masturbation with people of the same sex
unholy unions of people of the same sex
What is it you did not see in my post that you believed needed clarification?
 
I believe it was every type of sexual immorality that you could think of that was going on it wasn’t confined to homosexuality - it say that the whole city show up to have relations with the angels when they entered to find Lot from the very youngest to the oldest… The funny thing about it is right after the city is destroyed incest happens between Lot and his two daughters.
 
I believe it was every type of sexual immorality that you could think of that was going on it wasn’t confined to homosexuality - it say that the whole city show up to have relations with the angels when they entered to find Lot from the very youngest to the oldest… The funny thing about it is right after the city is destroyed incest happens between Lot and his two daughters.
The Jewish interpretation includes every type of immorality, not only sexual, and particularly lack of social justice to the poor, ill, elderly, and children.
 
It’s important to recognize that the ancient world didn’t have an understanding of sexual orientation. Although there is no doubt that homosexual acts are sinful, it’s equally important to recognize that the sin of Sodom & Gommorah was inhospitality.
"Throughout history, Jewish and Christian scholars have recognized that one of the chief sins involved in God’s destruction of Sodom was its people’s homosexual behavior. But today, certain homosexual activists promote the idea that the sin of Sodom was merely a lack of hospitality. Although inhospitality is a sin, it is clearly the homosexual behavior of the Sodomites that is singled out for special criticism in the account of their city’s destruction. We must look to Scripture’s own interpretation of the sin of Sodom.

Jude 7 records that Sodom and Gomorrah “acted immorally and indulged in unnatural lust.” Ezekiel says that Sodom committed “abominable things” (Ezek. 16:50), which could refer to homosexual and heterosexual acts of sin. Lot even offered his two virgin daughters in place of his guests, but the men of Sodom rejected the offer, preferring homosexual sex over heterosexual sex (Gen. 19:8–9). Ezekiel does allude to a lack of hospitality in saying that Sodom “did not aid the poor and needy” (Ezek. 16:49). So homosexual acts and a lack of hospitality both contributed to the destruction of Sodom, with the former being the far greater sin, the “abominable thing” that set off God’s wrath.

But the Sodom incident is not the only time the Old Testament deals with homosexuality. An explicit condemnation is found in the book of Leviticus: “You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination. . . . If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall be put to death, their blood is upon them” (Lev. 18:22, 20:13). "

catholic.com/search/content/Sodom%20and%20Gomorrah

The authoritative Catholic interpretation of S&G is not that it was only or even mainly “a sin of inhospitality.” The inhospitality was secondary.
😉
 
Brb,

Felation with people of the same sex
Sodomy with people of the same sex
Mutual masturbation with people of the same sex
unholy unions of people of the same sex

Am I to understand that you do not see these as sins against chastity with the understanding that all these are in the context in the sentence concerning people of the same sex?

Please tell me you need no explanation for this.
So then … Sodomy between heteros, 69 between heteros, and mutual masturb are kosher for all but homosexuals ?

… the Bible, and what is written in our hearts, would suggest otherwise. Sodomy, fellatio, and masturb are not ordered towards procreation, but are perversions/fornications, and we can be sure they were practiced in Sodom/Gomorrah ------ and ALL there perished.

Did only males live in those sinful cities ? Very unlikely …
there is nothing new under the sun.
 
brb,

You asked a question concerning a post to someone other than yourself…
fellatio and mutual masturb … are sins ? Catholic citation on this please.
Many here are teaching they both are OK. … saying the Church ignores, doesn’t address them, thus by default are OK.
These questions were directed at a post concerning the Catechism and Personna Humana.

Have you read Personna Humana?

You asked for citations and I pointed out that this thread…

Sodom-Gomorrah----99% Gay and in the context of Homosexuality I was directing my answer to Same Sex Sins…

You now pose this question…
So then … Sodomy between heteros, 69 between heteros, and mutual masturb are kosher for all but homosexuals ?
… the Bible, and what is written in our hearts, would suggest otherwise. Sodomy, fellatio, and masturb are not ordered towards procreation, but are perversions/fornications, and we can be sure they were practiced in Sodom/Gomorrah ------ and ALL there perished.
Did only males live in those sinful cities ? Very unlikely …
there is nothing new under the sun
Is it my understanding that in the context of a thread about Sodom-Gomorrah----99% Gay, a post about same sex and those sins of those that are same sex…that you do not understand the difference between people of the same sex and heterosexuals?

What is the problem you see in discussion Homosexuals in a thread about Sodom and Gomorrah that relates to heterosexual?

What does this mean to you?

What does this say about your understanding of this thread about Homosexuals, Gay and Sodom and Gomorrah?

Help me understand your confusion?
 
So then … Sodomy between heteros, 69 between heteros, and mutual masturb are kosher for all but homosexuals ?

… the Bible, and what is written in our hearts, would suggest otherwise. Sodomy, fellatio, and masturb are not ordered towards procreation, but are perversions/fornications, and we can be sure they were practiced in Sodom/Gomorrah ------ and ALL there perished.

Did only males live in those sinful cities ? Very unlikely …
there is nothing new under the sun.
Fellatio is sodomy, mutual masturbation is sodomy; probably the majority of heterosexuals in the US are technically sodomites.

We shouldn’t point out that heterosexuals can be sodomites because pointing out their own sins isn’t something they will do, let them live in blissfully sinful ignorance.
 
Fellatio is sodomy, mutual masturbation is sodomy; probably the majority of heterosexuals in the US are technically sodomites.

We shouldn’t point out that heterosexuals can be sodomites because pointing out their own sins isn’t something they will do, let them live in blissfully sinful ignorance.
DR,

So in the context of this thread…

Sodom-Gomorrah-----99.9% Gay, does that mean that 0.1% was heterosexual?
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top