E
EA_Man
Guest
The two examples of Jesus explaining scripture emphasize what part of the justification for Sola Scriptura is - that scripture itself shows a preference for scripture rather than oral “tradition”. Jesus is explaining how scripture pointed to Him, he’s not quoting “tradition”, and the Jews had alot of traditions.Luke 24
27: And beginning with Moses and all the prophets, he interpreted to them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.
And Jesus open the scrolls and read from Isaiha in the temple. There are dozens of examples so when someone makes such a statement again, I’m on your side.
Question for you. Was there something wrong with the conversions of Cornelius, Lydia, the Jailor, and others because they did not go and search the scriptures but just took Peter and Paul’s word for it? How about the Eunuch in Acts 8 who couldn’t even read? He didn’t do alot of searching.
Blessings
No there’s obviously nothing wrong with these conversions at all.
Although I would point out that the Eunuch was reading Isaiah, I believe, and even posed a question to Phillip regarding the meaning of the text. But there’s no defect in any of these conversions.
So no disagreement.
Sola Scriptura does not declare that the Gospels cannot be shared orally, or that people must respond only to the scripture they “read” on their own. What it does say is that Scripture is the final authority for faith and morals.
My understanding of the Catholic teaching of the deposit of faith is that there is Sacred Scripture, Sacred Tradition, and the teaching of the Magesterium (which is validated by Apostolic Succession). I have seen and heard the analogy of a three-legged stool.
Sola Scriptura says “the deposit of:faith” is Scripture. That deposit of faith is not invalidated by it’s translation into English. The cardinals and bishops in the US conduct their business and teaching almost exclusively in English, does this render their teaching invalid in your mind? Of course not.
Peace