J
JTBT
Guest
Historic Apostolic TeachingWhose tradition?
SK
Historic Apostolic TeachingWhose tradition?
SK
REALLY!! you own history.That would be ours, not yours.
who in your Church was alive when Christ walked the earth? … no it seems we have the same history up until the 1500’sSeeing as we were there before you, sort of.
But how do you know if you’re understanding correctly?Read the scriptures for yourself and try to understand, if you don’t understand appeal to tradition.
Therin lies the rub…Actually the real issue is if our Tradition goes against YOUR interpretation of scripture. What happens if one interpretation goes against another interpretation? Which one is rejected? The obvious answer is the other person’s of course because your view of scripture is always right.
I can look at the fathers of the church as easily as you can.But how do you know if you’re understanding correctly?
Ok. By this, I’m assuming from the rest fo the thread that by “apostolic”, you’re including the universal teaching of the bishops since the apostles as well, not just the apostles themselves, yes?Historic Apostolic Teaching
Sure.I can look at the fathers of the church as easily as you can.
don’t you see that you argument can be flipped back on you, how do you know you are understanding the Catholic Church correctly?
I’m counting apostolic teaching, if a Bishop held to it then yes he is included, if he did not then no I would not include that Bishop, no matter what city he was Bishop of …Ok. By this, I’m assuming from the rest fo the thread that by “apostolic”, you’re including the universal teaching of the bishops since the apostles as well, not just the apostles themselves, yes?
SK
The heirarchy of the Church definitely exists to serve the Lord and to bring the good news of salvation to the world, not for its own sake. Yes.Also after reading the first 28 threads it appears as if some argue that the one who was there first has the right of ultimate interpretation or ownership of Jesus apostolates and ultimate successors of them. Also the recipients of the scriptures and rightful owners of the title of the Church of Christ. I think God is being left out of the picture.Sure, Jesus left Peter and other disciples the keys of the kingdom but this is for all believers who are made king and priests, ambassadors for Christ,as we pass on the gospel news to a perishing world.
It has to be both, though, Tito if verses such as Matt 18:17 are to be understood. How is one to take an issue to “the Church” (or to a fellow brother, for that matter) if one cannot see where “the Church” is in the first place? This verse is one of many that causes problems if we try to understand the Church as a strictly invisible body of believers.The church in Col. &Ephes. is the body of Christ, spiritual not a physical institution
I think so too! The problem with this is would Jesus leave it up to man to write these books infallibly in the first place? Of course not. So, if he prevented man from erring in the writing of Scripture, can he not also prevent man from erring in its interpretation and its “fleshing out” over time, we might say? I think you would agree with me that he can. So, the question then becomes, does he? Or did Jesus simply leave us an infallible book with which to fallibly generate our own versions of the faith? Or, rather, did he not only provide an infallible document, but an infallible interpetation as well, along with infallible interpreters? (Infallible because Jesus prevents them from erring, not because they have some special power of their own.)and God left His words which this body of Christ recognized as inspired (it was not for man to decide what was or was not inspired but to recognized what He had left for us). Jesus knew what was in man, would He leave it up to mankind to decide? I think a wise God was the chooser of all the books in the bible and not man.
Absolutely.Lastly SK, Ijust reviewed your thread #20 and wholeheartedly agree with you and hope my words here are taken in the spirit of edification and charity that I intend.
JTBT, I’ve misstepped. I apologize. Let’s back up a moment…I’m counting apostolic teaching, if a Bishop held to it then yes he is included, if he did not then no I would not include that Bishop, no matter what city he was Bishop of …
your explanation very vague.SilentKnight- Thank you for your (name removed by moderator)ut. My thread was saying that sola scriptura does not mean that others things are not also important, which they certainly are, but that none can rise to the level of the Word of God as ultimate authority. After I re-read what I had written I see that it can be understood differently.
Your points on tongues and baptism are well taken and people out there believe a plethora of things, but basically salvation can be viewed in one of three ways: either faith alone or faith+works or works only and as a generalization protestantism, catholicism and judaism (leaving out other belief systems which are by man’s doings) fall in one of these categories.Did not intend to get off the subect of S.S.
Also after reading the first 28 threads it appears as if some argue that the one who was there first has the right of ultimate interpretation or ownership of Jesus apostolates and ultimate successors of them. Also the recipients of the scriptures and rightful owners of the title of the Church of Christ. I think God is being left out of the picture.Sure, Jesus left Peter and other disciples the keys of the kingdom but this is for all believers who are made king and priests, ambassadors for Christ,as we pass on the gospel news to a perishing world. The church in Col. &Ephes. is the body of Christ, spiritual not a physical institution and God left His words which this body of Christ recognized as inspired (it was not for man to decide what was or was not inspired but to recognized what He had left for us). Jesus knew what was in man, would He leave it up to mankind to decide? I think a wise God was the chooser of all the books in the bible and not man. Lastly SK, Ijust reviewed your thread #20 and wholeheartedly agree with you and hope my words here are taken in the spirit of edification and charity that I intend.
God bless, TITO.
Sola Scriptura is not me and my Bible,JTBT, I’ve misstepped. I apologize. Let’s back up a moment…
Your original statement was, “Read the scriptures for yourself and try to understand, if you don’t understand appeal to tradition.” Stop there. Why? Under the current definition of Sola Scriptura, where is there room to look to other sources than Scripture itself for final answers regarding the Christian faith? Are you putting Tradition on par with Scripture? (Horror of horrors![]()
) Or are you simply saying that in non-essential matters one should look to Scripture for an answer and if one does not find that answer, then one should feel free to look to tradition for the answer?
SK
?As for misunderstandings of definitions of SS, perhaps Jimmy Akin’s article can offer some important information and insight. MATERIAL AND FORMAL SUFFICIENCYSola Scriptura doesn’t exist…in the Bible
My point exactly.Sola Scriptura is not me and my Bible,
your argument is tearing down the strawman of SOLO Scriptura which I and most mainstream Protestants do not hold to.
Problematic, I think, in that if this is the case the apostles could not have evangelized as they did. Moreover, how then did the masses of illiterate people over the first 1400 years of Christianity come to salvation in Christ, since even had they had a printed copy of the Word of God, they would have been unable to read it?Sola Scriptura could really be called Scripture primacy, an order of importance if you will, that is
1st scripture (Scripture is sufficient to guide one to Christ)
The problem with this is that there is very substantial evidence that the earliest ECF writings are very distinctly Catholic in their teachings. I’m speaking here of Polycarp, Ignatius of Antioch and the Didache.2nd tradition (being what did the church fathers say)
Hi AllActually the real issue is if our Tradition goes against YOUR interpretation of scripture. What happens if one interpretation goes against another interpretation? Which one is rejected? The obvious answer is the other person’s of course because your view of scripture is always right.