C
catholicray
Guest
Question 1
Alright this one is for the Protestants. We can acknowledge that there was a time when the Old Testament existed and the New Testament did not. I would like you to focus on the time between the ascension of Jesus into Heaven and the writing of the first book of the New Testament by St. Paul.
Jesus traditionally died 33 A.D. and the earliest estimates of St. Paul’s first writings are 50 A.D. So there is an estimated 17 years in which the Apostles were preaching the Gospel without a New Testament. During this time I would guess they gain a few Christians at least.
What I find interesting is that the Church exists during this 17 year period and yet the New Testament does not. Now if you are a Christian during this time and the Church practiced Sola Scriptura then that means the Old Testament was the sole infallible rule of your faith. Right?
So how do the earliest Christians allow books to be added to the sole infallible rule of their faith?
Given I have attempted to tear down an aspect of faith I would like to conclude with a building up as well. Personally I believe the connection from the Old Testament to the New Testament is understood if we understand that Jesus is the scriptura. I also believe we need a top down model of authority where God is the infallible rule of our faith and the Church is infallible and scripture is infallible with God and how he decides to have dominion over us.
Alright this one is for the Protestants. We can acknowledge that there was a time when the Old Testament existed and the New Testament did not. I would like you to focus on the time between the ascension of Jesus into Heaven and the writing of the first book of the New Testament by St. Paul.
Jesus traditionally died 33 A.D. and the earliest estimates of St. Paul’s first writings are 50 A.D. So there is an estimated 17 years in which the Apostles were preaching the Gospel without a New Testament. During this time I would guess they gain a few Christians at least.
What I find interesting is that the Church exists during this 17 year period and yet the New Testament does not. Now if you are a Christian during this time and the Church practiced Sola Scriptura then that means the Old Testament was the sole infallible rule of your faith. Right?
So how do the earliest Christians allow books to be added to the sole infallible rule of their faith?
Given I have attempted to tear down an aspect of faith I would like to conclude with a building up as well. Personally I believe the connection from the Old Testament to the New Testament is understood if we understand that Jesus is the scriptura. I also believe we need a top down model of authority where God is the infallible rule of our faith and the Church is infallible and scripture is infallible with God and how he decides to have dominion over us.
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