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Guest
I find this fascinating. How could the Bible have in it Sola Scriptura if not through prophecy? As to say, “You will write a book and it will contain no error.” Or at least, “I am writing this book and it contains no error.”
The fact of the matter is, whatever you pervert the Gospels to mean, they couldn’t have been talking about the Bible because it didn’t exist. The fact is, Biblical infallibility is completely dependent on Church infallibility (logically speaking, not inherent due to source.)
If in the year 400 someone would have said some nonsense like this people would have looked at them like they were insane. So you accept the book as infallible (which is a fundamental teaching of the Church) but not the Church that gave us the book? That’s nutty. That’s like if Scientologists were to write a book and for me to say, “I think this Scientology book (which they claim is infallible) is infallible, but that Scientology Church; that’s filled with errors.”
The rest of the “proof” I’ve seen from Scripture is weak anyway. It completely ignores instructions given to the people of the Church to hold fast to what was written and unwritten. Therefore, even if Scripture showed Scripture to be infallible (reiterating it is Catholic dogma); Sola Scriptura is still not proven.
Sola Scriptura means only Scripture. That idea is not only not in Scripture (self contradicting) but unpractical and unreasonable. Why would leaders of a Church that they understood Christ instituted write articles to members of that Church condemning that very Church and placing the Bible above it? It doesn’t make sense at all. And only if the Bible were to show something that paralleled that could Sola Scriptura even be something to be considered.
Sola Scriptura is made out of necessity to rationalize Protestant’s existence of differing faith to that of Christ and His Church. This is demonstrable from that this idea never existed prior to it being invented over 1500 years after Christ’s apostles spread the truth. And the million other ways clear falsehoods are eventually shown to be untrue.
The fact of the matter is, whatever you pervert the Gospels to mean, they couldn’t have been talking about the Bible because it didn’t exist. The fact is, Biblical infallibility is completely dependent on Church infallibility (logically speaking, not inherent due to source.)
If in the year 400 someone would have said some nonsense like this people would have looked at them like they were insane. So you accept the book as infallible (which is a fundamental teaching of the Church) but not the Church that gave us the book? That’s nutty. That’s like if Scientologists were to write a book and for me to say, “I think this Scientology book (which they claim is infallible) is infallible, but that Scientology Church; that’s filled with errors.”
The rest of the “proof” I’ve seen from Scripture is weak anyway. It completely ignores instructions given to the people of the Church to hold fast to what was written and unwritten. Therefore, even if Scripture showed Scripture to be infallible (reiterating it is Catholic dogma); Sola Scriptura is still not proven.
Sola Scriptura means only Scripture. That idea is not only not in Scripture (self contradicting) but unpractical and unreasonable. Why would leaders of a Church that they understood Christ instituted write articles to members of that Church condemning that very Church and placing the Bible above it? It doesn’t make sense at all. And only if the Bible were to show something that paralleled that could Sola Scriptura even be something to be considered.
Sola Scriptura is made out of necessity to rationalize Protestant’s existence of differing faith to that of Christ and His Church. This is demonstrable from that this idea never existed prior to it being invented over 1500 years after Christ’s apostles spread the truth. And the million other ways clear falsehoods are eventually shown to be untrue.