S
Sharp11
Guest
Hi JJ59,Hi there everyone.
…
So I’m unsure… The matter of authority was not a problem back then, and Scripture was quoted frequently and spoken of as “God-breathed”, the way one would speak of it if they held it as the sole authority. Is the silence of Sola Scriptura meaningful? Are the protestants right??
So confused…
I read part of this thread but not all of it, so I apologize if I am repeating anything that has already been said. I have a few remarks that I hope will help.
The hypothetical justification you give for Sola Scriptura is that Scripture is referred to as “God-breathed” (2Tim 3:16). You said that this is precisely the sort of language one would use for Scripture were it meant to be sole infallible rule of faith for the Christian.
I am not going to contest this point. But the real question is whether or not it is possible to refer to Scripture as “God-breathed” without implying that it is the sole infallible rule of faith for the Christian. If so, then the fact that Scripture is called “God-breathed” in the Bible is not a sufficient condition for Sola Scriptura to be true–in other words, it doesn’t prove anything one way or the other.
And I think everyone would agree that it is possible for something to be “God-breathed” (divinely inspired) without being sufficient as the sole infallible rule of faith for the Christian. Protestants and Catholics alike would call not only the entire Bible as a whole, but also each individual verse of Scripture, “God-breathed”–as the author of 2Tim wrote, “All Scripture is God-breathed…” (2Tim 3:16).
But no one–not even Protestants–would claim that any given verse from Scripture, taken alone, is sufficient as the sole infallible rule of faith for the Christian. Therefore it is possible for something to be “God-breathed” and yet not be the sole infallible rule of faith for the Christian. Therefore the fact that the Bible calls itself God-breathed does not mean that the Bible is teaching Sola Scriptura.
Hope that helps.
Sharp 11